| TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HUỆ | ĐỀ THI HỌC KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 11 (Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề) |
1. Đề số 1
Section A (6,0 points)
Listen to the conversation twice and mark the best answer for each of the following questions.
Question 1: What did Ruth get her brother for his birthday?
A. A Japanese case B. A Japanese painting C.Japanese cakes D.Japanese books
Question 2: She sent her present by __________
A. regular mail B. express mail C. air mail D. surface mail
Question 3: Some people think it is _______ to give money as a gift.
A. impersonal B. immoral C. immature D. impolite
Question 4: Ruth's brother will be ________.
A. 23 B. 24 ` C. 25 D. 26
Listen to the conversation twice and decide whether the following sentences are True (T) of False (F). Write your answer on the answer sheet.
Question 5: She says the cause of deforestation is encroaching factories. _______
Question 6: Contamination from lakes is one of the big problems. _______
Question 7: She says it hard to see the sun. _______
Question 8: To prevent the problem, they are fewer cars. _______
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 9: A. equipped B. delivered C. transferred D. received
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 10: A. electricity B. geothermal C. alternative D. radiation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: We should develop such ______ sources of energy as solar energy and nuclear energy.
A. tradition B. alternative C. revolutionary D. surprising
Question 12: People are destroying the air by adding ______ to it.
A. pollutants B. polluters C. pollution D. polluted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlinded word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 13: Solar energy is not only plentiful and infinite but also clean and safe.
A. boundless B. unlimited C. uncountable D. inflexible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlinded word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 14: The hotel staff are always friendly and courteous.
A. efficient B. helpful C. rude D. perfect
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 15: The book which I bought it yesterday is very good.
A B C D
Question 16: No one died in the accident, didn't they?
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbers blanks.
In the 1972 the Australian government (17) _______ a quota system which allowed a(n) certain number of kangaroos to be killed or 'culled' every year. Legislation was introduced because farmers claimed that the kangaroos were while their crops. The problem is that ruining two and a half million kangaroos can be killed legally each year, a futher two and a half million are killed illegally. The animals are killed for a variety of (18) _______ The main one, however, is that kangaroo meat is sold for human (19) _______ usually in the form of steaks - or is used as pet food. There are also thousands of dollars to be made (20) _______ the sale of their skins.
Question 17: A. introduced B. produced C. turned out D. offered
Question 18: A. results B. pretexts C. excuses D. reasons
Question 19: A. consumption B. need C. employment D. usage
Question 20: A. by B. during C. for D. from
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The search for alternative sources of energy has led in various directions. Many communities are burning garbage and other biological waste products to produce electricity- Converting waste products to gases or oil is also an efficient way to dispose of wastes. Experimental work is being done to derive synthetic fuels from coal, oil shale, and coal tars. But to date, that process has proven expensive. Other experiments are underway to harness power with giant windmills. Geothermal power is also being tested. Some experts expect utility companies to revive hydroelectric power derived from streams and rivers. Fifty years ago hydroelectric power provided one third of the electricity used in the United States, but to day it supplies only 4 percent. The oceans are another potential source of energy. Scientists are studying ways to convert the energy of ocean currents, tides, and waves to electricity. Experiments are also underway to make use of temperature differences in ocean water to produce energy.
Question 21: What is the best title of the passage?
A. The Use of Water Products for Energy
B. The Search for Alternative Sources of Energy
C. Efficient Ways of Disposing of Waste
D. New Discoveries in Geothermal Power
Question 22: What provided one third of the electricity in the United States fifty years ago?
A. wind B. waste products C. water D. oil
Question 23: What could Rest replace the phrase 'geothermal power' in the passage?
A. heat from the earth B. gases in the earth's atmosphere
C. steam that shot up out of the earth D. water in the ocean, lake, or river
Question 24: Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as an alternative source of energy?
A. Burning of garbage B. Geothermal power C. Synthetic fuels D. Electricity.
Section B (2,0 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (0,5 point)
Question 1: Mr Jones was very generous about overtime payments. I was working for him.
=> Mr Jones ______________________________________________________________________
Question 2: People say that Peter has been in the army.
=> Peter __________________________________________________________________________
II. Writing a paragraph (1,5 points)
Write a paragraph of 120 words about the measures to protect the endangered species, using the cues given below.
- set up organizations and raise funds.
- establish national parks
- enact laws
ANSWER KEYS
Section A (6,0 points)
| Questions | Answers | Marks |
| Question 1 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 2 | B | 0,25 đ |
| Question 3 | A | 0,25 đ |
| Question 4 | D | 0,25 đ |
| Question 5 | T | 0,25 đ |
| Question 6 | F | 0,25 đ |
| Question 7 | T | 0,25 đ |
| Question 8 | F | 0,25 đ |
| Question 9 | A | 0,25 đ |
| Question 10 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 11 | B | 0,25 đ |
| Question 12 | A | 0,25 đ |
| Question 13 | B | 0,25 đ |
| Question 14 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 15 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 16 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 17 | A | 0,25 đ |
| Question 18 | D | 0,25 đ |
| Question 19 | A | 0,25 đ |
| Question 20 | D | 0,25 đ |
| Question 21 | B | 0,25 đ |
| Question 22 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 23 | A | 0,25 đ |
| Question 24 | D | 0,25 đ |
| Tổng cộng | 6,0 đ | |
Section B (2,0 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (0,5 point)
Question 1: Mr Jones for whom I was working was very generous about overtime payments.
Question 2: Peter is said to have been in the army.
2. Đề số 2
Section A (6.0 points)
Listening
Part 1. Which activity does each person enjoy doing now? Listen twice and choose the best answer for each of the following questions.
Câu 1: Zachary enjoys_______________________
A. playing the guitar B. playing in a band C. playing the piano D. playing the violin
Câu 2: Erica enjoys_______________________
A. collecting baseball cards B. collecting comic books
C. gardening D. shopping
Câu 3: Bradley enjoys_______________________
A. watching videos B. hiking
C. playing video games D. fishing
Câu 4: Evan enjoys _______________________
A. collecting stamps B. collecting paintings
C. collecting Christmas cards D. dancing with his classmates
Part 2. Listen to the conversations twice and decide whether the following sentences are TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Circle T or F.
Câu 5: Debbie would love to go dancing, but she has to study. T F
Câu 6: Dennis thinks he is a terrible dancer T F
Câu 7: Carlo can’t go because he has a date who doesn’t like to dance T F
Câu 8: Marlene can’t go because she has to stay home. T F
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions.
Câu 9: A. stopped B. launched C. robbed D. missed
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks.
Although they are safe to use in the short term, coal, gas and oil present a long-term (10) __________ to the environment. All three types of fossil fuels produce carbon dioxide in (11) ___________ greater .quantities than plants can use. The carbon dioxide then (12) ___________ in the atmosphere and may even increase the earth's 'heat load' and lead to global (13) ____________ in temperature.
Câu 10: A. demand B. threat C. fight D. warning
Câu 11: A. more B. every C. very D. far
Câu 12: A. discharges B. accumulates C. releases D. disperses
Câu 13: A. drop B. raise C. rise D. change
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Câu 14: He was the last person ____________________ the party.
A. to left B. left C. leaving D. leaves
Câu 15: It was Peter _________________ the windows yesterday.
A. who breaks B. that broke C. whom broke D. breaking
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Câu 16: They didn’t want to come with us at first, but we could be able to persuade them.
A B C D
Câu 17: The children studying in this school have to do a lot of homework, haven’t they?
A B C D
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 18: A. envelope B. guitarist C. temperature D. energy
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Câu 19: Building dams costs a lot of money, so water energy is expensive.
A. exorbitant B. attractive C. extensive D. cheap
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which 'once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct.
What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world's ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival - and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself It will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
Câu 20: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. International boycotts B. Endangered species
C. The Bengal tiger D. Problems with industrialization
Câu 21: The word 'poachers' used in line 7 could be best replaced by which of the followings?
A. Concerned scientists B. Trained hunters
C. Enterprising researchers. D. Illegal hunters
Câu 22: What is an act of cruelty according to the passage?
A. Killing animals for personal satisfaction. B. Hunting endangered animals.
C. Having interest in material gain. D. Causing the problem of extinction. .
Câu 23: Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as a way to protect animals from extinction?
A. Raise money to invest in equipment and patrol.
B. Establish wildlife reserves.
C. Introduce laws to prohibit the killing of endangered animals.
D. Refuse to buy animal products.
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Câu 24: The hotel staff are always friendly and courteous.
A. efficient B. perfect C. helpful D. polite
Section B (2.0 marks)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (0.5 point)
Question 1: Mr. John is a good doctor. You have just talked to his daughter.
Mr. John,______________________________________________________
Question 2: They think that many people have died.
Many people ___________________________________________________
II. Write a paragraph of 120 words about the measures to protect the environment, using the cues given below.(1.5 points)
− stop cutting trees for timber.
− plant trees and forests.
− reduce using cars, motorbikes.
− reduce using fertilizers and pesticides
− stop littering on land and in water.
ĐÁP ÁN
Section A (6.0 points)
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5.T 6. T 7. T 8. F 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. B 19. D 20. B 21. D 22. A 23. A 24. D
Section B (2.0 marks)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (0.5 point = 0.25 x 2)
Question 1: Mr. John is a good doctor. You have just talked to his daughter.
Mr. John, whose daughter you have just talked to, is a good doctor.(0.125)
Question 2: They think that many people have died.
Many people are thought to have died.(0.125)
II. Write a paragraph of 120 words about the measures to protect the environment, using the cues given below.(1.5 points)
3. Đề số 3
I. Phonetics:
* Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently (0.5p)
1. A. depth B. threat C. teeth D. smooth
2.A. decreased B. endangered C. influenced D. established
* Choose the word which is stressed differently from the others: (0.5p)
3. A. event B. gather C. purpose D. rugby
4. A. relationship B. technology C. kilometer D. competitive
II. Grammar and vocabulary:
* Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb in brackets: ( 1,5 p)
1. I (just/ turn off) …………………………..the lights when the telephone (ring) ……….....………..
2. The words (speak)……………………..……..cannot be taken back.
3. There are many pictures books for students (read).………………….……………….…
4. By tomorrow morning, half of this work ( do)........................................................
5. The children (attend)……………………………..that school receive a good education.
* Fill in the blank with the correct form of the word in brackets: ( 1 p)
1.We offer a very (compete)……………………………….. rate for parcels of under 2 kg.
2. Air water and soil are necessary things to our ( survive) ………………………..………….
3 The Earth is expected to be a place where human beings and other living things can (peace) ……………………………….co-exist.
4.Recently the Asian Games has increased in (popular) ……..……………………….
* Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences: (1,5p)
1. My father never indulges _____ drinking.
A. in B. to C. with D. on
2. I try to go jogging at least four times _______ week.
A. the B. a C. an D. X
3. We could make better ______ of our energy resources.
A. spend B. need C. limit D. use
4 .The football match was so dull that most of the _____ left at half-time.
A. participants B. attendants C. spectators D. audiences
5. He seldom goes to the library, ______?
A. doesn’t he B. does he C. isn’t he D. is he
6.The High Street is so narrow that the council have decided to _____ it.
A. extend B. lengthen C. increase D. widen
III. Writing:
*Find out one mistake in each sentence: (1p)
1. It was the day before that the accident happened.
A B C D
2. I come from a city locate in the southern part of the country.
A B C D
3. Despite there are some disadvantages, the potential of alternative sources of energy is great.
A B C D
4. If I had breakfast, I would not have been so hungry.
A B C D
* Rewrite the following sentences using the suggestions (1.5ps)
1. She presented him a book on his birthday.(a cleft sentence with the adverbial focus)
…………………………………………………………………………………
2. I checked four machines. All of them didn’t work (combine using a relative word )
I …………………………………………………………….………………worked.
3. The girl has felt better. She was injured in an accident. (combine using a participle)
……………………………………………………………………………
IV. Reading:
* Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the blank. (1.25p)
Television is one of man's most important (1)…..….of communication. It brings pictures and sounds from around the world into millions of homes. A person with a television set can sit in his house and watch the President (2)…….... a speech or visit a foreign country. He can see a war being fought and watch statesmen try to (3) …..…. peace .Through television, home viewers can see and learn about people, places, and things in faraway lands. TV even takes its viewers (4)………….. of this world. It brings them coverage of America's astronauts as the astronauts explore outer space.
In addition to all these things, television brings its viewers a steady stream of programs that are (5) ………. to entertain. In fact, TV provides many more entertainment programs than any other kind. The programs include action-packed dramas, light comedies, sporting events and motion pictures.
1. A. procedure B. technology C. manner D. means
2. A. make B. do C. get D. work
3. A. move around B. make out C. bring about D. carry around
4. A. out B. onto C. away D. above
5. A. monitored B. designed C. built up D. patterned
* Read the passage then choose the best answer: (1.25p)
You have probably heard about the unappealing dried foods that astronauts eat in space, such as the chalky ice cream and powdered pea soup. That means all the water is removed from those foods. But did you know that there are more than 90 different food and drink items on NASA’s space menu? ( NASA is the American government organization concerned with spacecraft and space travel. NASA is an abbreviation for “ National Aeronautics and Space Administration”)
Many food items are dehydrated to prevent bacteria growing, so water must be added before consumption. But some foods look like those ready meals you find in the supermarkets, made hot in the microwave. In fact, the chefs have recently provided some gorgeous meals for the space crew. Astronauts choose their individual food selections on Earth, getting to taste it all first beforehand.
Drinking is another matter. Although much is brought up with the astronauts and in cargo deliveries, a lot is recycled from human waste water. Yes, the water they use could have been someone else’s urine a day ago. You cannot be squeamish if you are an astronaut!
1. The text is about…………………………
A. eating in space B. foods and astronauts
C. water in space D. eating and drinking in space
2. Food for astronauts in space ………………………..
A. is dehydrated
B. is delicious
C. is the same what they have on Earth
D. contains a lot of water which is very important for their body in space
3. NASA …………………………….
A. is a spaceship B. doesn’t prepare meals for astronauts
C. prepares foods for astronauts D. doesn’t allow astronauts to eat in a spaceship
4. Astronauts ………………………………..
A. have to eat all the foods that the chefs prepare
B. can choose their foods before their flight into space
C. don’t like the foods supplied by NASA
D. can eat ready meals in the supermarkets
5. Astronauts ………………………………..
A. are not allowed to drink water B. have to use recycled waste water
C. only drink refreshment D. never have to drink recycled waste water
-- The end --
ĐÁP ÁN
I. Phonetics: 1. D. smooth 2. B. endangered 3. A. event 4. C. kilometer
II. Grammar and vocabulary:
* Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb in brackets: ( 1,5 p)
1. had just turned off/ rang 2. spoken 3. to read 4. will have been done 5. attending
* Fill in the blank with the correct form of the word in brackets: ( 1 p)
1. competitive 2. survival 3. peacefully 4. popularity
* Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences: (1,5p)
1. A. in 2. B. a 3. D. use 4 . C. Spectators 5. B. does he 6. D. widen
III. Writing: *Find out one mistake in each sentence: (1p) 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B
Rewrite the following sentences using the suggestions (1.5ps)
1. It was on his birthday that she presented him a book.
2. I checked four machines, none of which worked.
3. The girl injured in an accident has felt better.
IV. Reading:
Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the blank. (1.25p)
1. A. procedure B. technology C. manner D. means
2. A. make B. do C. get D. work
3. A. move around B. make out C. bring about D. carry around
4. A. out B. onto C. away D. above
5. A. monitored B. designed C. built up D. patterned
* Read the passage then choose the best answer: (1.25p)
1. D. eating and drinking in space 2. A. is dehydrated
3. C. prepares foods for astronauts 4. B. can choose their foods before their flight into space
5. B. have to use recycled waste water
4. Đề số 4
Section A (6,0 points)
Listen to the conversation twice and mark the best answer for each of the following questions.
Question 1: Where does the young girl want to go with her father?
A. to the bank
B. to the movies
C. to the zoo
D. to the swimming pool
Question 2 : Who are they going with?
A. the girl's mother
B. the girl's best friend
C. the girl’s brother
D. the girl’s sister
Question 3: What time will they most likely leave?
A. 9:30 AM
B. 12:45 PM
C. 2:00 PM
D. 4: 00 PM
Question 4: : What does the girl want to do later?
A. She wants to walk to the ice cream store.
B. She wants to swim at the park.
C. She wants to go down to the beach
D. She wants to go to the book store.
Listen to the conversation twice and decide whether the following sentences are True (T) of False (F). Write your answer on the answer sheet.
Question 5: The woman’s hobby is collecting rare books.
Question 6: She also liles listening to music because it helps her relax.
Question 7: The man has many old coins.
Question 8: He does not like watching movies.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 9:
A. subscribe B. facsimile C. pride D. provide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 10:
A. president B.possible C. astronaut D. engineer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: The post office offers the ______ Mail Service which is particularly fast.
A. Secure B. Efficient C. Express D. Reliable
Question 12: At last, they _________ get through the mountain in such a heavy rain.
A. can B. could C. are able to D.were able to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlinded word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 13: In 1957, the Soviet Union launched the first satelite to orbit the Earth.
A. circle B. fly C. get back to D. attract
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlinded word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 14: The hotel staff are always friendly and courteous.
A. rude B. polite C. helpful D. perfect
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 15: There is a threat of global warming, that comes from the results of Greenhouse effect.
Question 16: The book is not interesting , doesn’t it ?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbers blanks.
The number of animal species that have die out since 1960 _____(17 ) sharply. Experts have looked for historical evidence of extinction. As far as they can tell, between modern historical records and the beginning of the 17th century, fewer ______(18) 20 species of animals died out. _______( 19) , in just one century, from 1600 to 1699, seven more animals species are known to have _______(20 ) . The next century saw the extinction of 36 species. And the rate kept increasing. In the first three quarters of the 20th century, 83 species disappeared, despite the education of people about endangered species. The rate of extinction has not been slowed by public information.
Question 17: A. increase B. increased C. has increased D. will increased
Question 18: A. as B. more C. less D. than
Question 19: A. If B. although C. so D. however
Question 20: A. recovered B. supplied C. changed D. disappeared
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The rapid growth of China and India means that a lot more oil will have to come from somewhere. World demand has grown faster in the past five years than in the second half of the 1990s. Today we consume an average of 85 million barrels daily and that figure will rise to 113 million barrels by 2030. A survey of the four countries with the biggest reported reserves – Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq and Kuwait – reveals major concerns. Iran became the first major oil producer to introduce oil rationing. A report on Saudi Arabia’s oil reserves showed that the figure went from 79barrels a day in 2002 to 84.5 million in 2004. There are still 909 billion tons of coal worldwide, enough to last at least 155 years. But coal is a dirty energy resource. The natural gas fields should last 20 years longer than the world’s oil reserves and is expensive to extract and transport. Hydrogen fuel cells can provide us with an energy source but there is not enough hydrogen to go round and the few clean ways of producing it are expensive. Oil – dependent nations are turning to renewable energy source. An increase in the using of oil all over the globe will increase the chance of a disaster and the risk of dangerous substances getting into the atmosphere.
Question 21: . The text is about _____.
A. the increasing number of oil used. B. harvesting oil.
C. oil and disaster. D. oil in Chine and Indian.
Question 22: The figure in the text shows that____.
A. more and more oil are used. B. less and less oil has been used.
C. China is the first major oil producer. D. Iran is the most oil consumers in the world.
Question 23: Coal is ____.
A. a clean energy. B. the only energy in the world
C. a polluting energy. D. never used up.
Question 24: We can learn from the text that _____.
A. we can’t find any cleaner energy.
B. the more coal we use the more polluted the atmosphere is.
C. the world demand on coal is increasing.
D. China and Indian do not need coal any more.
Section B (2,0 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (0,5 point)
Question 1: The fifth man who was interviewed was entirely unsuitable. (Replace the relative clause by an infinitive or infinitive phrase.)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Question 2: It is said that many people are homeless after the floods.
Many people are said ...............................................................................................
II. Writing a paragraph (1,5 points)
In 100-120 words, write a paragraph about the advantages of using solar energy.
These phrases may be useful to you :
- clean and safe.
- plentiful and infinite
- easily deployed by both home and business users
THE END
ANSWER KEYS
Section A (6,0 points)
| Questions | Answers | Marks |
| Question 1 | B | 0,25 đ |
| Question 2 | A | 0,25 đ |
| Question 3 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 4 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 5 | T | 0,25 đ |
| Question 6 | T | 0,25 đ |
| Question 7 | F | 0,25 đ |
| Question 8 | F | 0,25 đ |
| Question 9 | B | 0,25 đ |
| Question 10 | D | 0,25 đ |
| Question 11 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 12 | D | 0,25 đ |
| Question 13 | A | 0,25 đ |
| Question 14 | A | 0,25 đ |
| Question 15 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 16 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 17 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 18 | D | 0,25 đ |
| Question 19 | D | 0,25 đ |
| Question 20 | D | 0,25 đ |
| Question 21 | A | 0,25 đ |
| Question 22 | A | 0,25 đ |
| Question 23 | C | 0,25 đ |
| Question 24 | B | 0,25 đ |
| Tổng cộng | 6,0 đ | |
Section B (2,0 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (0,5 point)
Question 1: The fifth man to be interviewed was entirely unsuitable.
Question 2: Many people are said to be homeless after the floods.
5. Đề số 5
Phần I : PHẦN CHUNG (7,5điểm) ( cho tất cả học sinh khối)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.
Question 1: A. A. finished B. marched C. stopped D. robbed
Question 2: A. letters B. books Ccats D. accidents
Question 3 : A. death B. Eaten C. deal D. feat
Question 4: A. stop B. post C. offer D. from
Question 5 : A. Asian B. basketball C. tennis D. solidarity
II.Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences.
Question 6 : Do you know when the 2006 Asian Games took place?
A. happened B. deepened C. added D. struggled
Question 7 : You have got a new car, ……….?
A. do you B. aren’t you C. don’t you D. haven’t you
Question 8 : The paintings _________ Mr. Brown has in his house are worth around $100.000
A. whose B. which C. what D. whom
Question 9 : More and more rare animals are _______danger of extinction.
A. for B. on C. at D. in
Question 10 : The city of London was founded by the Romans in the year 43 AD.
A. established B. located C. developed D. characterized
Question 11 : It was me who………you last night.
A. calls B. called C. call D. To call
Question 12 : Linda: "Excuse me! Where's the post office?" Maria: "______."
A. I'm afraid not B. Don't worry C. Yes, I think so D. It's over there
Question 13 : When he ______, we ______ dinner.
A. arrived/having B. was arriving/had C. arrived/ were having D. had arrived/had
Question 14 : Laura had hurt her leg and she _____________walk very well
A. could B. couldn’t C. can D. can’t
Question 15 : The man _________ his car outside hasn’t come back for it yet.
A. who left B. who he left C. whom he left D. whose
Question 16 : The man a black suit is a football referee.
A. to wear B. wearing C. who wear D. wears.
Question 17 : This shirt is too big for me, ………….?
A. is it B. isn’t this C. isn’t it D. doesn’t it
Question 18 : Natural parks should be set ____________to save animals and plants.
A. into B. out C. up D. down
Question 19 : Mr. Pike -------------------- the most famous archaeologist in our city.
A. says to be B. is said to be C. is said that D. said to be
Question 20 : People say that six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world were destroyed.
A. It was said that six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world were destroyed.
B. Six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world is said to be destroyed
C. Six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world are said to have been destroyed.
D. Six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world is said to have destroyed.
III.Choose the underlined part that needs correcting.
Question 21 : You and I went there together , weren’t we ?
Question 22 : : It was Mrs Lan who was give a lot of friends by her students.
Question 23 : George are said to be planning another trip to Greece.
Question 24 : He works at Heathrow Airport, that is one of the big airports in the world.
Question 25 : The girl who name's Alice gave you this letter.
IV.Choose the best option to complete the blanks in the following passage:
Before the telephone invented by Alexander Graham Bell in 1876, it was hard for people (26)____over long distances. They wrote letters to each other. It could take days or even weeks for letters to be (27)____Then people learned how (28)____telegraph messages. The messages traveled as electric signals that represented a code of dots and dashes. An operator on the other end converted the dots and dashes into a regular message. Bell’s first telephone call went over the same wires used for telegraph messages. As the telephone became (29)____and more popular, it largely replaced the telegraph. Today, our huge telephone network does many things besides carrying telephone calls. It sends copies of letters and pictures from one machine to another, called a (30)____machine.
Question 26 : A. to communicateB. communicated C. communicate D. communicating
Question 27 : A. arrived B. delivered C. coming D. seen
Question 28: A. to send B. to call C. to leave D. to see
Question 29: A. more B. much C. less D. better
Question 30: A. phone B. telegraph C. printing D. fax
Phần II : PHẦN RIÊNG ( 2,5điểm ) dành cho học sinh lớp 11 A,B,C, E, H ĐẾN M
V. Read the passage and choose one correct answer for each question.
Scientists often divide resources into two groups: renewable and non– renewable. When a resource is used, it takes some times to replace it. If the resource can be replaced quickly and easily, it is called renewable. If it cannot be replaced quickly and easily, it is non-renewable. All fossil fuels are non-renewable resources. Solar energy, air, and water are usually called renewable because there is an unlimited supply.
However, this definition may change if people are not careful with these resources. The amount of solar energy that reaches the earth depends on the atmosphere. If the atmosphere is polluted, the solar energy that reaches the earth may be dangerous. If humans continue to pollute the air, it will not contain the correct amounts of these gases.
Many resources are limited and non- renewable, and many are in danger of pollution. As a consequence, resources must be conserved and the environment protected. Conservation must become an important part of everyone’s life.
Question 31. How many kinds of resources are mentioned in the passage?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
Question 32 . Non-renewable resources are those which _______
A. are unlimited
B. can be replaced quickly and easily
C. take millions of the years to replace
D. are used every day such as solar energy and water
Question 33 . What will happen if the atmosphere is polluted?
A. The air won’t contain the correct amounts of natural gases
B. Life won’t continue as it does
C. Renewable resources will soon become non- renewable
D. All are correct
Question 34 . The word conservation in the passage is opposite to
A. prevention B. Destruction C. protection D. preservation
Question 35 . Why do we have to conserve resources?
A. Because many resources are limited and non-renewable
B. Because conservation plays an important part in everyone’s life
C. To keep the air from being polluted
D. To make natural resources renewable
VI. Rewrite the following sentences as requested
Question 36 : People say that he beats his wife. (Passive voice )
He is said ___________________________________.
Question 37 :That’s must be Jenny’s father ,…………… ? (tag question )
Question 38 :The boy hit the dog in the garden
It _____________________________________________(cleft sentence )
Question 39 :The picture was beautiful .She was looking at it
The ________________________________________________(preposition + relative pronoun )
Question 40 :I will be staying with Adrian .His father is one of my closest friends ( relative clause)
I______________________________________________________
Phần II : PHẦN RIÊNG ( 2,5điểm ) dành cho học sinh lớp 11 D,G
V. Read the passage carefully and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer.
The Asian Games owes its origins to small Asian multi-sport competitions. The Far Eastern Championship Games were created to show unity and cooperation among three nations: Japan, the Philippines and China. The first games were held in Manila, the Philippines in 1931. Other Asian nations participated after it was organized.
After World War II, a number of Asian countries became independent. Many of the new independent Asian countries wanted to use a new type of competition where Asian dominance should not be shown by violence and should be strengthened by mutual understanding. In August 1948, during the 14th Olympic Games in London, Indian representative Guru Dutt Sondhi proposed to sports leaders of the Asian teams the idea of having discussions about holding the Asian Games. They agreed to form the Asian Athletic Federation. A preparatory committee was set up to draft the charter for the Asian amateur athletic federation. In February, 1949, the Asian athletic federation was formed and used the name Asian Games Federation. It was decided to hold the first Asian Games in 1951 in New Delhi the capital of India. They added that the Asian Games would be regularly held once every four years.
Question.31 The text is about .
A. the origin of the Asian Games
B. the Far Eastern Championship Games
C. the Games in Manila
D. the relationship of Japan, the Philippines, and China
Question.32 The Far Eastern Championship Games .
A. were held in Manila after World War II
B. were held in Japan
C. were attended by all countries in Asia
D. had the participation of only three nations
Question.33 The 14th Olympic Games took place .
A. in 1913 B. in august 1948
C. before the World War II D. in February 1949
Question.34 The Asian Games .
A. were first held in China
B. were first held in Indian
C. were suggested establishing by a Londoner.
D. were held in same year of the 14th Olympic Games
Question.35 The Asian Games were first held in .
A. 1931 B. 1941 C. 1948 D. 1951
VI.Rewrite the following sentences as requested
Question 36 : People said that he stole their bike . (Passive voice )
He was said ___________________________________.
Question 37 :That must be Jenny’s father ,…………… ? (tag question )
Question 38 :The boy hit the dog in the garden
It _______________________(cleft sentence in the passive )
Question 39 :The picture was beautiful .She was looking at it
The _____________________________(preposition + relative pronoun)
Question 40 :I will be staying with Adrian .His father is one of my closest friends ( relative clause)
I_____________________________
ĐÁP ÁN
(A,B,C,E,K,M)
| Q | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| A | D | A | A | B | A | A | D | B | D | A | B | D | C | B | A | B | C | C | B | C |
| Q | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 |
| ||||
| A | D | C | A | C | B | A | A | A | D | D | A | C | D | B | A |
| ||||
LOP D,G
| Q | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| A | D | A | A | B | A | A | D | B | D | A | B | D | C | B | A | B | C | C | B | C |
| Q | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 |
| ||||
| A | D | C | A | C | B | A | A | A | D | D | A | D | B | B | D |
| ||||
Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi HK2 môn Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Nguyễn Huệ. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang Chúng tôi để tải tài liệu về máy tính.
Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong học tập.
Mời các em tham khảo các tài liệu có liên quan:
- Bộ 5 đề thi HK2 môn Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Nguyễn Trãi
- Bộ 5 đề thi HK2 môn Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Lê Lợi
- Bộ 5 đề thi HK2 môn Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Nguyễn Du
Chúc các em học tập tốt!
