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ĐỀ ÔN TẬP HÈ NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 12 (Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)

I. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) is an international (1) ____ governmental organization for the (2) ____, research, and restoration of the environment. The organization was (3) ____ as a charitable trust on September 11, 1961, in Morges, Switzerland, under the name World Wildlife Fund. It was an initiative of Julian Huxley and Max Nicholson.

It is the world's largest independent conservation organization with over 5 million (4) ____ worldwide, working in more (5) ____ 90 countries, supporting 100 conservation and environmental projects around the world. It is a charity, with (6) ____ 9% of its funding coming from voluntary. (7) ____ by private individuals and businesses.

The group says its mission is "to halt and reverse the (8) ____ of our environment". Currently, much of its work focuses on the conservation of three biomes that contain most of the world's biodiversity: forests, freshwater ecosystems, and oceans and coasts. Among other issues, it is also concerned (9) ____ endangered species, pollution, and climate change. The organization (10) ____ more than 20 field projects worldwide. In the last few years, the organization set up offices and operations around the world.

1. A. non	B. not	C. no	D. nor
2. A. challenge	B. keeping	C. conservation	D. awareness
3. A. produced	B. discovered	C. used	D. formed
4. A. supporters	B. residents	C. inhabitants	D. citizens
5. A. as	B. than	C. to	D. as to
6. A. generally	B. individually	C. commercially	D. approximately
7. A. deposits	B. donations	C. refunds	D. loans
8. A. destroy	B. destructive	C. destruction	D. destroyed
9. A. on	B. by	C. with	D. upon
10. A. goes	B. walks	C. reaches	D. runs

II. Read the passage below and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE?

In 1981, the Association of Zoos and Aquariums (AZA) created a Species Survival Plan (SSP) in order to help preserve specific endangered and threatened species through captive breeding. With over 450 SSP Plans, there are a number of endangered species that are covered by the AZA with plans to cover population management goals and recommendations for breeding for a diverse and healthy population, created by Taxon Advisory Groups. These programs are commonly created as a last resort effort. SSP Programs regularly participate in species recovery, veterinary care for wildlife disease outbreaks, and a number of other wildlife conservation efforts. The AZA's Species Survival Plan also has breeding and transfer programs, both within and outside of AZA - certified zoos and aquariums. Some animals that are part of SSP programs are giant pandas, lowland gorillas, and California condors.

Some animals that are part of SSP programs are giant pandas, lowland gorillas, and California condors.

Question 1: The Association of Zoos and Aquariums (AZA) created a Species Survival Plan in 1988

A. True

B. False

Question 2: With over 450 SSP Plans, there are a number of endangered species that are covered by the AZA with plans to cover population management goals and recommendations for breeding for a diverse and healthy population

A. True

B. False

Question 3: These programs created by Taxon Advisory Groups.

A. True

B. False

Question 4: SSP Programs never participate in species recovery

A. True

B. False

Question 5: A part of SSP programs are giant pandas, lowland gorillas, and California condors.

A. True

B. False

III. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to complete the passage below

In 1973, when the tiger appeared to (1)______ facing extinction, the World Wide Fund for Nature and (2) _____Indian Government agreed to set up “Operation Tiger”- a campaign (3) ______ save this threatened creature. They started by creating nine special parks so that tigers could live in safety. The first was at Ranthambhore, a region (4) _____ was quickly turning into a desert as too much of the grass was being eaten by the local people’s cattle. At the time there (5) ______ just fourteen tigers left there. The government had to clear twelve small villages, which mean moving nearly 1,000 people and 10,000 cattle so the land could be handed back to nature.

Question 1:	A. are	B. be	C. is	D. was
Question 2:	A. the	B. X	C. an	D. a
Question 3:	A. so	B. so that	C. because of	D. to
Question 4:	A. whom	B. who	C. which	D. what
Question 5:	A. are	B. was	C. is	D. were

IV. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to answer these following questions

Dinosaurs were reptiles that lived during a period of earth’s history called the Mesozoic Era, which is also known as the Age of Reptiles. The first dinosaurs appeared more than 200 million years ago. For many millions of years, they dominated the land with their huge size and strength. Then about 65 million years ago, they died out rather suddenly, never to re-emerge. The word “dinosauras” comes from two Greek words meaning “terrible lizard”. Dinosaurs were not lizards, but their appearance could be truly terrifying. The biggest ones weighed more than ten times as much as a mature elephant and nearly equalled the size of most modern-day whales. The famous kinds of dinosaurs, including the brontosaur and tyrannosaurus rex, reached 80 to 90 feet in length. Not all dinosaurs were giant, however, some were actually not larger than a chicken. Scientists still do not know what caused dinosaurs to disappear. One theory involves a change of the earth’s climate. It is believed that temperatures dropped significantly towards the end of the Cretaceous protection, it is possible that the climate became too chilly for dinosaurs. In contrast, other species having protection, such as the mammals and birds, were able to survive.

Question 1: What is the best title for this passage?

A. The History of Earth

B. The Metabolism of Dinosaurs

C. Earth's Largest Reptiles

D. The Domination of the

Question 2: It can be inferred from the passage that the Age of Reptiles lasted about_____.

A. 200 million years

B. 135 million years

C. 80 million years

D. 65 million years

Question 3: The author uses the phrase "never to re-emerge" to indicate that the dinosaurs_____.

A. went into hiding

B. lost their way

C. became extinct

D. never died out

Question 4: According to the passage, what is true about the size of dinosaurs?

A. It was rather uniform.

B. It guaranteed their survival.

C. It made them the largest creatures ever on earth.

D. It varied quite greatly

Question 5: Paragraph C most likely discusses_____.

A. other changes in the climate

B. another theory about the disappearance of dinosaurs

C. the ability of mammals to survive

D. the protection of other species

ĐÁP ÁN

I. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

1 - A; 2 - C; 3 - D; 4 - A; 5 - B;

6 - D; 7 - B; 8 - C; 9 - C; 10 - B;

II. Read the passage below and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE?

1 - B; 2 - A; 3 - A; 4 - B; 5 - A;

III. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to complete the passage below

1 - B; 2 - A; 3 - D; 4 - C; 5 - D;

IV. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to answer these following questions

1 - C; 2 - B; 3 - C; 4 - D; 5 - B;

Read the passage below and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE?

Autonomous weapons are artificial intelligence systems that are programmed to kill. In the hands of the wrong person, these weapons could easily cause mass casualties. Moreover, an AI arms race could inadvertently lead to an AI war that also results in mass casualties. To avoid being thwarted by the enemy, these weapons would be designed to be extremely difficult to simply “turn off,” so humans could plausibly lose control of such a situation. This risk is one that’s present even with narrow AI, but grows as levels of AI intelligence and autonomy increase.

Question 1: Autonomous weapons are natural intelligence systems that are programmed to kill

A. True

B. False

Question 2: An AI arms race could inadvertently lead to an AI war

A. True

B. False

Question 3: These weapons would be designed to be extremely complicated

A. True

B. False

Question 4: An AI arm also causes in minor casualties.

A. True

B. False

Question 5: This risk is one that’s present even with narrow AI, but grows as levels of AI intelligence.

A. True

B. False

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to complete the passage below

It may be that media have made the AI safety debate seem more (6)_______than it really is. After all, fear sells, and articles using out-of-context quotes to (7) _______ imminent doom can generate more clicks than nuanced and balanced ones. (8) _______, two people who only know about each other’ s positions from media quotes are likely (9)_______ think they disagree more than they really do. For example, a techno-skeptic who only read about Bill Gates’ s position in a British tabloid may mistakenly think Gates believes super intelligence to be imminent. Similarly, someone in the beneficial-AI movement (10) _______ who knows nothing about Andrew Ng’s position except his quote about overpopulation on Mars may mistakenly think he doesn’t care about AI safety, whereas in fact, he does. The crux is simply that because Ng’s timeline estimates are longer, he naturally tends to prioritize short-term AI challenges over long-term ones.

Question 6:	A. conversational	B. controversial	C. conversantly	D. controversy
Question 7:	A. proclaim	B. abolish	C. repeal	D. decrease
Question 8:	A.However	B. As a result	C. Therefor	D. Before
Question 9:	A. at	B. off	C. to	D. with
Question 10:	A. which	B. when	C. what	D. who

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to answer these following questions

According to futurist Ray Kurzweil human civilisation will be unavoidably transformed in the year 2045 by an event that he call The Singularity. He suggests that exponential technological development will lead to the inevitable rise of artificial intelligence (A.I.). Such advanced technology may make humanity insignificant.

Kurzweil says that technologies are double-edged swords and envisions the possibility that an artificial intelligence might decide to put an end to humanity simply because it surpasses human intelligence. Kurzweil does have faith in mankind, however. He suggests that people are wise to accept that technological progress is unavoidable and that such acceptance will make the process of transition easier.

Kurzweil has personal reasons to hope for the coming of The Singularity, because he wants his life to be extended by it. Kurzweil envisions that future medical advances could invent tiny computerised machines, or nanobots, which operate inside the body to enhance the immune system. In addition to believes that future technology might be able to resurrect his deceased father.

Looking at the state of current technological advances in many fields such as medicine, navigation and communication, Kurzweil's visions may not be unbelievable.The critical issue, however, is whether genuine artificial intelligence can ever be truly realised. Kurzweil suggests that critics of his theories, who believe that the human brain is too complex to duplicate, are underestimating what the exponential growth in technology can eventually accomplish.

Question 11: What is The Singularity?

A. An event giving rise to future human beings.

B. An event giving rise to future artificial intelligence.

C. An event giving rise to future alien civilisation.

Question 12: Why could The Singularity put an end to humans?

A. Because A.I. might imitate human intelligence.

B. Because A.I. is similar to human intelligence.

C. Because A.I. will exceed human intelligence.

Question 13: What does Kurzweil say about technologies?

A. Technologies are avoidable.

B. Technologies are safe and friendly.

C. Technologies are double-edged swords.

Question 14: Why does Kurzweil hope for the coming of The Singularity?

A. Because it would have economic advantages.

B. Because life could be extended

C. Because human would have virtual entertainment.

Question 15: How does Kurzweil respond to critics of his theories

A. He thinks that they do not evaluate correctly the rapid growth of technology.

B. He thinks that the realisation of genuine artificial intelligence is a challenge.

C. He thinks that future events cannot be predicted with our current mean.

Đáp án:

1 - B	2 - A	3 - A	4 - B	5 - A
6 - B	7 - A	8 - B	9 - B	10 - D
11 - B	12 - C	13 - C	14 - B	15 - A

Read the passage below and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE?

Becoming a nurse practitioner requires a master’s degree in nursing and certification. With an aging population, the demand for healthcare is expected to double over the next decade. Physician assistants have climbed up to number 2 in the best jobs in America. They conduct physical exams, prescribe medicine, and treat illnesses. What does a physician assistant make? A physician assistant averages $92,000 per year and job growth is expected to rise a remarkable 39%.

Question 1: Becoming a nurse practitioner requires a master’s degree.

A. True

B. False

Question 2: The demand for healthcare is expected to three times over the next decade.

A. True

B. False

Question 3: Physician assistants have climbed up to number 3 in the best jobs in America.

A. True

B. False

Question 4: A physician assistant averages $92,000 per year

A. True

B. False

Question 5: Job growth is expected to rise a remarkable 38%.

A. True

B. False

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to complete the passage below

How would you like(6) _______work in the fast-growing tech sector? Information technology is the #1 field in(7)_______ of expected job growth over the next decade,(8) _______makes systems engineers among the most highly sought after professionals today. The average salary for a systems engineer is $87,100, and the career field is expected to grow 45% over the next 10 years. To become a systems engineer, you need a bachelor’s(9)_______in engineering.

Software architects have taken the title as the best job in the country with job growth of 34% and an average annual salary of $119,000 per year. These innovative engineering professionals are responsible for(10)_______ to analyze and store data.

Question 6:	A. to	B. with	C. at	D. up
Question 7:	A. view	B. side	C. terms	D. resean
Question 8:	A. who	B. whom	C. which	D. what
Question 9:	A. certificate	B. degree	C. diploma	D. qualification
Question 10:	A. helped	B. helps	C. helpes	D. helping

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to answer these following questions

Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online. Of course, there are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media has opened up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of webmaster. However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a webmaster to perform.

To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software that the website the webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software require different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally (at the firm itself) or externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create an accurate webmaster job description.

Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer applications. However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high demand. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new media”.

The term “new media” is difficult to define because it encompasses a constantly growing set of new technologies and skills. Specifically, it includes websites, email, Internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD, streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer illustration, video games, virtually reality, and computer artistry.

Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With many companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting of freelance workers online has become common business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool of buyers from around the world with whom freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own country of residence.

How much can a person make in these kinds of career? As with many questions related to today’s evolving technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people with technical Internet skills salaries well above $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at about $30,000 per year, but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been known to make between $40,000 and $70,000 per year.

Question 11: The word “identify” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. name

B. estimate

C. discount

D. encounter

Question 12: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.

A. companies

B. new job opportunities

C. hardware and software

D. webmasters

Question 13: According to the passage, which of the following is true of webmasters?

A. They never work independently.

B. They require a minimal level of expertise.

C. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for.

D. They do not support software products.

Question 14: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT _____.

A. There are online job available for workers with minimal computer skills.

B. Online workers cannot free themselves from the office.

C. Webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.

D. “New media” is not easy to define.

Question 15: What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To inform people about employment related to the Internet.

B. To inform people about the computer industry.

C. To inform people about the tasks and role of a webmaster.

D. To explain why webmasters make a lot of money.

ĐÁP ÁN

1 - A	2 - B	3 - B	4 - A	5 - B
6 - A	7 - C	8 - C	9 - B	10 - D
11 - A	12 - C	13 - A	14 - B	15 - A

Bài 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 1: Nobody in the class is as tall as Mike.

A. Everybody in the class is taller than Mike.

B. Somebody in the class may be shorter than Mike.

C. Mike is the tallest student in the class.

D. Mike may be taller than most students in the class.

Question 2: I haven't got enough money to buy a new car.

A. I need more money to buy a new car.

B. I don't want to spend more money on a new car.

C. A new car is not something I really need.

D. Money is not the most essential issue to buy a new car.

Question 3: I am really keen on playing sports.

A. I am a big fan of sports.

B. Playing sports makes me sick.

C. I am not really into sports.

D. I can't stand sports.

Question 4: “I will come back home soon,” he said.

A. He advised to come back home soon.

B. He offered to come back home soon.

C. He promised to come back home soon.

D. He suggested that he should come back home soon.

Question 5: He prevented his close friend from telling the truth.

A. He forbade his close friend to tell the truth.

B. He allowed his close friend to tell the truth.

C. He ordered his close friend to tell the truth.

D. He paid his close friend to tell the truth.

Question 6: My brother speaks too loud. It is really annoying.

A. My brother is speaking too loud.

B. My brother likes to speak too loud.

C. My brother feels annoyed when he can't speak too loud.

D. My brother is always speaking too loud.

Question 7: There is always conflict between parents and children. However, they still should talk and share things with each other.

A. Although there is always conflict between parents and children, they still should talk and share things with each other.

B. There is always conflict between parents and children, so they still should talk and share things with each other.

C. Unless there is always conflict between parents and children, they still should talk and share things with each other.

D. Not only there is always conflict between parents and children, but they still should talk and share things with each other.

Question 8: Your parents will help you with the problem. You should tell them the story.

A. Because your parents will help you with the problem, you should tell them the story.

B. Your parents will help you with the problem since you should tell them the story.

C. If your parents will help you with the problem, you should tell them the story.

D. Your parents will help you with the problem because you should tell them the story.

Question 9: Unemployment rate is high. This makes many children move back to their parents' house.

A. Many children move back to their parents' house, which makes high unemployment rate.

B. High unemployment rate forces many children to move back to their parents' house.

C. Moving back to their parents' house suggests that the unemployment rate is high.

D. It is necessary to move back to your parents' house if unemployment rate is high.

Question 10: She is an honest person. She is also a very friendly one.

A. She is an honest but friendly person.

B. She is not only an honest but also a very friendly person.

C. Though she is a honest person, she is friendly.

D. Being honest is necessary to become friendly.

Question 11: The car was very expensive and he couldn’t afford it.

A. The car was very expensive so that he couldn’t buy it.

B. The car was too expensive for him to buy.

C. He was rich enough to buy the car.

D. He was so poor but he bought the car.

Question 12: “Please send me to a warm climate” Tom said.

A. Tom pleaded with the boss to send him to a warm climate.

B. Tom begged the boss to send him to a warm climate.

C. Tom would rather went to a warm climate.

D. Tom asked his boss to go to a warm climate.

Question 13: He expected us to offer him the job.

A. We were expected to be offered him the job.

B. He expected to be offered the job.

C. He is expected that we should offer him the job.

D. He was offered the job without expectation.

Question 14: He held the rope with one hand. He stretched it out.

A. The robe is held with one hand then he stretched it out.

B. Stretching the robe out, he holds it with one hand.

C. Holding the rope with one hand, he stretched it out.

D. He stretched the rope with one hand and held it.

Question 15: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.

A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.

B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.

C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.

D. The plan is as impractical as it is genius.

Bài 2. Choose the answer A, B, C or D that has the meaning the same as the root one. 

1. I haven’t seen him for months.

A. It’s months since I last saw him

B. It’s months when I last saw him

C. It’s months before I last saw him

D. It’s months after I last saw him

2. "Did you have a good time abroad?" - She asked me if ________.

A. I have a good time abroad.

B. I had good time abroad.

C. I had had a good time abroad.

D. I have had a good time abroad.

3. He started living here three years ago.

A. He lived here three years ago.

B. He has lived here for three years.

C. He had been living here for three years.

D. He had lived here three years ago.

4. I haven’t seen him for ages.

A. It’s ages since I last saw him.

B. It’s ages when I last saw him.

C. It’s ages before I last saw him.

D. It’s ages after I last saw him.

5. The film will end when you have finished dinner.

A. By the time you finish dinner, the film will have ended.

B. By the time you have finished dinner, the film will end.

C. You finish dinner, and then the film will end.

D. By the time you finishing dinner, the film will have ended.

ĐÁP ÁN

Bài 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

1. C	2. A	3. A	4. C	5. A	6. D	7. A	8. A
9. B	10. B	11. B	12. B	13. B	14. C	15. A

Bài 2. Choose the answer A, B, C or D that has the meaning the same as the root one.

1 - A; 2 - C; 3 - B; 4 - A; 5 - A;

Bài 1. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 1: There was an upward trend in the demand for labor force.

A. The demand for labor force declined.

B. The demand for labor force increased.

C. The demand for labor force reduced.

D. The demand for labor force remained stable.

Question 2: The industrial production plummeted spectacularly from 1990 to 2000.

A. The industrial production fell quickly in ten years from 1990 to 2000.

B. The industrial production fell steadily in ten years from 1990 to 2000.

C. The industrial production rose sharply in ten years from 1990 to 2000.

D. The industrial production rose slightly in ten years from 1990 to 2000.

Question 3: There was a 5% drop in the student enrollment of the university.

A. The student enrollment of the university dropped by 5%.

B. The student enrollment of the university dropped for 5%.

C. The student enrollment of the university dropped in 5%.

D. The student enrollment of the university dropped to 5%.

Question 4: There was a 30% rise in the rate of unemployment.

A. There was a rise by 30% in the rate of unemployment.

B. There was a rise of 30% in the rate of unemployment.

C. There was a rise to 30% in the rate of unemployment.

D. There was a rise up 30% in the rate of unemployment.

Question 5: Rapid ups and downs in the number of students could be observed in June.

A. The number of students changed dramatically in June.

B. The number of students did not stay the same in June.

C. The number of students fluctuated wildly in June.

D. The number of students went up and then fell in June.

Question 6: There was moderate fluctuation in the availability of seasonal produce.

A. The availability of seasonal produce experienced a stable period.

B. The availability of seasonal produce is recorded leveling off.

C. The availability of seasonal produce hardly moved up and down.

D. The availability of seasonal produce went through a period of erratic.

Question 7: The rural population grew slowly from 1950 to 1990 and reached its peak in 1992.

A. The rural population experienced an upward trend from 1950 to 1992.

B. The rural population hit its highest level in 1992 after a slight increase in 40 years.

C. The rural population leveled off in 1992 after growing slowly for 40 years.

D. The rural population reached its lowest level in 1992 after growing slowly for 40 years.

Question 8: The number of unemployed people doubled between 2005 and 2009.

A. Twice as many people were unemployed in 2005 compared to 2009.

B. Twice as many people were unemployed in 2009 than in 2005.

C. There were twice as many unemployed people in 2005 compared to 2009.

D. There were twice as many unemployed people in 2009 as in 2005.

Bài 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 9: The share price fluctuated. The trend was slightly upward.

A. The share price fluctuated; as the upward trend.

B. The share price fluctuated; consequently, the trend was slightly upward.

C. The share price fluctuated; due to the upward trend.

D. The share price fluctuated; however, the trend was slightly upward.

Question 10: Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population. At the same time, Europe is home to 14 per cent of the world's urban population.

A. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population although Europe is home to 14 per cent of the world's urban population.

B. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population due to Europe is home to 14 per cent of the world's urban population.

C. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population, nevertheless, Europe is home to 14 per cent of the world's urban population.

D. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population whereas Europe is home to 14 per cent of the world's urban population.

Question 11: Increasing urbanization has led to problems. Cities are centers of civilization and culture.

A. Although increasing urbanization has led to problems, but cities are centers of civilization and culture.

B. Despite increasing urbanization has led to problems, but cities are centers of civilization and culture.

C. In spite of increasing urbanization has led to problems, yet cities are centers of civilization and culture.

D. Though increasing urbanization has led to problems, cities are centers of civilization and culture.

Question 12: In 1960, the rate of urbanization in Indonesia was about 17%. In 1969, it was about 20%.

A. The rate of urbanization in Indonesia increased by 3% in 1969 followed by a slight fall to 17% in 1960.

B. The rate of urbanization in Indonesia rose to 20% before falling to 17% in the period of nine years from 1960.

C. In 1960, the rate of urbanization in Indonesia was about 17% after falling slightly by 3% in the period of nine years.

D. In 1960, the rate of urbanization in Indonesia was about 17% followed by a slight increase of 3% in 1969.

Question 13: The expenditure of the office remained stable. The profit rose by 25%.

A. The profit rose by 25% although the stabilization of the office's expenditure.

B. The profit rose by 25% as a result of the stabilization of the office's expenditure.

C. The profit rose by 25% despite the stabilization of the office's expenditure.

D. The profit rose by 25% owing to the stabilization of the office's expenditure.

Question 14: The rapid urbanization led to many serious problems. One of those is the growth of slums.

A. The rapid urbanization is the cause of many serious problems such as the growth of slums.

B. The rapid urbanization is consequent of many serious problems like the growth of slums.

C. The rapid urbanization is created by many serious problems such as the growth of slums.

D. The rapid urbanization is resulted by many serious problems like the growth of slums.

Question 15: The price plunged from 300 to 20 in 1995. It plateaued over the next 3 years.

A. The price decreased by 280 in 1995 before stabilizing for the next 3 years.

B. The price decreased for 280 in 1995 before leveling off for the next 3 years.

C. The price increased by 280 in 1995 before leveling off for the next 3 years.

D. The price increased for 280 in 1995 before stabilizing for the next 3 years.

ĐÁP ÁN

1. B	2. A	3. A	4. B	5. C	6. D	7. B	8. D
9. D	10. D	11. D	12. D	13. C	14. A	15. A

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