Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Chánh Nghĩa Lần 2

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT CHÁNH NGHĨA LẦN 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: Despite their normal cylindrical form, some of the documents  ______ on silk that were found at Mawangdui, an archaeological site in southeastern China, were folded into rectangles.

A. wrote                      B. written

C. were written           D.  be written

Question 2: John's ______ and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales Manager.

A. punctuality             B. punctual

C. punctuate               D. punctually

Question 3: I am sure your sister will lend you a sympathetic_____when you explain the situation to her.

A. eye                          B. ear

C. arm                         D. finger

Question 4: Mr. Pike is certainly a______writer; he has written quite a few books this year.

A. prolific                    B. fruitful

C. fertile                      D. successful

Question 5: We were quite impressed by the ______ students who came up with the answer to our question almost instantly.

A. absent-minded       B. big-headed

C. quick-witted           D. bad-tempered

Question 6: My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but he ______ to the occasion wonderfully.

A. raised                      B. rose

C. fell                          D. faced

Question 7: Daisy has spent the last two weekends _____ hundreds of photographs so that she can put them in separate albums.

A. playing at               B. sorting out

C. cutting off              D. filling up

Question 8: I didn’t see the red light at the crossroads. Otherwise, I _____ my car.

A. stopped

B. had stopped

C. would have stopped

D. would stop

Question 9: I much preferred it when we _____ to Wales every summer on holiday.

A. used to go

B. were used to going

C. had gone

D. have been going

Question 10: The incident happening last week left her ______ confused and hurt.

A. feel                         B. felt

C. feeling                    D. to feel

Question 11: “We gave them the money yesterday, but we haven't received a receipt yet, ______?’’ she asked her husband.

A. didn't we                B. have we

C. did we                    D. haven’t we

Question 12: You and your big mouth! It was supposed to be a secret. You _____ her!

A. shouldn't have told

B. mightn’t have told

C. mustn't have told

D. couldn't have told

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 13.

A. notify           B. advocate

C. influence       D. interfere

Question 14:

A. royal             B. unique

C. remote          D. extreme

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the bold and underlined word(s) or phrase(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 15: Many organizations have been involved in drawing up the report on environmental campaigns.

A. concerned about               B. confined in

C. enquired about                  D. engaged in

Question 16. His girlfriend’s behavior at the party was unacceptable, which made everyone there shocked.

A. out of practice                   B. out of line

C. out of the habit                  D. out of sight

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold and underlined word(s) or phrase(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: If any employee knowingly breaks the terms of this contract, he will be dismissed immediately.

A. coincidentally                    B. deliberately

C. instinctively                       D. accidentally

Question 18: Wendy is on the horns of a dilemma: she just wonders whether to go for a picnic with her friends or to stay at home with her family.

A. unwilling to make a decision

B. able to make a choice

C. eager to make a plan

D. unready to make up her mind

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold and underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 19:

A. custom                   B. cushion

C. mushroom              D. culture

Question 20:

A. presses                  B. precedes 

C. judges                    D. catches

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

21^st CENTURY TEACHERS: INEVITABLE CHANGES

21^st century teachers need to serve as a guide or mentor for their students, not as the all- knowing sage providing them with everything they need. Nowadays, with so much access (21) ______ resources of all kinds, children invariably know more than teachers on different topics, step ahead of the technology. Teachers need to be empowered as facilitators for learning, so that they can empower their students in (22) ______.

This shift is great news for teachers. Instead of struggling to give kids all the information in areas (23) ______ they know little about, teachers can support students as they make their own steps into different fields. It’s about preparing them to go beyond their seniors, ensuring they have the skills to do it, and assisting them along the way.

(24) ______, teachers need to be forward-thinking, curious and flexible. They must be learners: learning new teaching methods, and learning alongside their students. Simply asking questions like “What will my students need dozens of years from now?” or “How can I help give them those skills?” can change teachers' (25) ______, make them a leader, and bring about changes in the classroom, school and community.

Question 21.

A. to                           B. with

C. for                          D. in

Question 22:

A. sight                       B. use

C. line                         D. turn

Question 23:

A. what                        B. that

C. where                     D. whom

Question 24:

A. For instance            B. Therefore

C. In practice              D. Otherwise

Question 25:

A. knowledge               B. prejudice

C. mindset                  D. judgement 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

For centuries, time was measured by the position of the sun with the use of sundials. Noon was recognized when the sun was the highest in the sky, and cities would set their clock by this apparent solar time, even though some cities would often be on a slightly different time. Daylight Saving Time (DST), sometimes called summer time, was instituted to make better use of daylight. Thus, clocks are set forward one hour in the spring to move an hour of daylight from the morning to the evening and then set back one hour in the fall to return to normal daylight.

Benjamin Franklin first conceived the idea of daylight saving during his tenure as an American delegate in Paris in 1984 and wrote about it extensively in his essay, "An Economical Project." It is said that Franklin awoke early one morning and was surprised to see the sunlight at such an hour. Always the economist, Franklin believed the practice of moving the time could save on the use of candlelight, as candles were expensive at the time.

In England, builder William Willett (1857–1915) became a strong supporter for Daylight Saving Time upon noticing blinds of many houses were closed on an early sunny morning. Willet believed everyone, including himself, would appreciate longer hours of light in the evenings. In 1909, Sir Robert Pearce introduced a bill in the House of Commons to make it obligatory to adjust the clocks. A bill was drafted and introduced into Parliament several times but met with great opposition, mostly from farmers. Eventually, in 1925, it was decided that summer time should begin on the day following the third Saturday in April and close after the first Saturday in October.

The U.S. Congress passed the Standard Time Act of 1918 to establish standard time and preserve and set Daylight Saving Time across the continent. This act also devised five time zones throughout the United States: Eastern, Central, Mountain, Pacific, and Alaska. The first time zone was set on "the mean astronomical time of the seventy-fifth degree of longitude west from Greenwich" (England). In 1919, this act was repealed.

President Roosevelt established year-round Daylight Saving Time (also called War Time) from 1942–1945. However, after this period, each state adopted its own DST, which proved to be disconcerting to television and radio broadcasting and transportation. In 1966, President Lyndon Johnson created the Department of Transportation and signed the Uniform Time Act. As a result, the Department of Transportation was given the responsibility for the time laws. During the oil embargo and energy crisis of the 1970s, President Richard Nixon extended DST through the Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 to conserve energy further. This law was modified in 1986, and Daylight Saving Time was reset to begin on the first Sunday in April (to spring ahead) and end on the last Sunday in October (to fall back).

Question 26: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to 

A. Franklin’s idea of daylight saving

B. Franklin's first conception

C.  Franklin’s first official tenure

D. Franklin’s delegation

Question 27: The word “obligatory” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to           

A. imperative              B. approved

C. deficient                 D. peculiar

Question 28: Who opposed the bill that was introduced in the House of Commons in the early 1900s?

A. Sir Robert Pearce

B. television and radio broadcasting companies

C. farmers

D. the U.S. Congress

Question 29: The word “devised” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to   

A. divided                   B. invented

C. ordered                   D. adapted

Question 30: Which of the following statements is true of the U.S. Department of Transportation?

A. It was created by President Richard Nixon.

B. It set standards for DST throughout the world.

C. It constructed the Uniform Time Act.

D. It oversees all time laws in the United States.

Question 31: The Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 was responsible for

A. extending Daylight Saving Time in the interest of energy conservation

B. preserving and setting Daylight Saving Time across the continent

C. instituting five time zones in the United States

D. conserving energy by giving the Department of Transportation authority over time laws

Question 32: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

A. Lyndon Johnson and the Uniform Time Act

B. The History and Rationale of Daylight Saving Time

C. The U.S. Department of Transportation and Daylight Saving Time

D. Daylight Saving Time in the United States

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 33: Harry is talking to Judy over the phone.

Harry: “Thank you for helping me prepare for my birthday party, Judy.”

Judy: “_______.”

A. It’s my pleasure

B. That’s out of this world

C. Never mention me

D. Of course not

Question 34: Tom and Josh are discussing their summer vacation plan.

Tom: “ _______.”

Josh: “I don’t think that’s a good idea because it will be costly and strenuous.”

A. Is it wise to climb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer?

B. What if weclimb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer?

C. How come will we climb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer?

D. Why don’t we climb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer?

(248391) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 35: Neither (A) the Minister nor his colleagues has given (B) an explanation for (C) the chaos in the financial market (D) last week.

Question 36: To (A) everyone's surprise, (B) it wasn't in Bristol which (C) he made (D) his fortune, although that’s where he was born.

Question 37: This might not (A) matter with (B) you, but some people are (C) going to be negatively (D) affected by this decision.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

SHAYNE’S DREAMS COME TRUE - BUT WILL THEY BE SHATTERED?

It is a week before The X Factor live tour when I meet the winner of the series, Shayne Ward. “It has been mental,” he says, referring to the past six months of his life. “I've just been talking to Louis Walsh on the phone. Louis Walsh!” Walsh, a top record producer and The X Factor judge, now manages Shayne’s career. “I was talking to Simon Cowell (a celebrity record producer) yesterday!” He shakes his head in amazement. And these people are telling me they're excited about working with me. “I can't get my head round it.”

Shayne is about as natural as any pop star arriving in the public arena can be. “I just can’t accept where I am now” he says sincerely. “It doesn't feel real. To me, this is just a job.” “What do you think being famous feels like?” I ask him. “I'm not sure, to be honest. Different from this?” he laughs, with only a hint of nerves. Since winning The X Factor, Shayne's success has been phenomenal. His debut single took just three days to reach the number one spot. On tour, he's going to play to audiences of 10,000 on average. He has already brought the house down at a gig in his home city. “I walked out after that performance and just thought, “I’m dreaming!””

Shayne is one of a family of seven children. Times were hard, but he has never wished or a different childhood. Although he thought about going to college, he ended up leaving school at sixteen, just to help his mother pay the rent. He set out on his reality show journey shortly afterwards. When he told he friends he had an audition for The X Factor, none of them really believed him. “I thought I’d go fot it because my family wanted me to, but I never really believed that I would win.”

Naturally, Ward is a fan of reality TV talent shows. “They're brilliant, because people who want recording contracts try for years and get nowhere. Then these competitions come along the people at home decide whether they like the singers or not. So its not just a few people at a record company deciding who gets a chance.” But the previous winner of The X Factor only had one hit. He hasn't been heard of since then. Is Shayne Ward going to be another talent show flop?

A lot of people feel cynical about reality TV show winners and their chances of continuing success. Audiences usually lose interest in them as soon as the show has finished. In fact, contestants on shows like Big Brother are given severe warnings from the show’s producers beforehand, basically telling them “you will not be liked”. Talent shows like The X Factor have to offer contestants a kind of stardom though, and something they can think of as a career, months afterwards at least.

Question 38: The word “mental” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. psychiatric             B. physical

C. crazy                     D. mind-bending

Question 39: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to

A. the tour                  B. the experience

C. the phone call         D. the show

Question 40: Which of the following statement is TRUE about Shayne Ward?

A. He is certain how well known he is.

B. He finds his present situation unacceptable.

C. He is confused about the nature of fame.

D. He thinks his job isn’t particularly glamorous.

Question 41: After performing in his home city, Shayne felt

A. overwhelmed         B. embarrassed

C. disappointed          D. relieved

Question 42: After leaving school at the age of sixteen, Shayne

A. set off on a trip

B. gave up performing

C. got himself a job

D. applied to a college

Question 43: The word “flop” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. someone who is unpopular

B. someone who is unsuccessful

C. someone who isn’t ambitious

D. someone who lacks character

Question 44: According to the passage, who decide the winner of a reality TV talent show?

A. audiences              

B. contestants

C. previous winners

D. record companies

Question 45: What does the writer suggest about reality talent show winners?

A. They are treated badly by producers.

B. Their fame is short-lived.

C. Audiences never really like them.

D. They don’t expect to be popular.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46: Steve said to Mike, “Don’t touch the electric wires. It might be deadly.”

A. Steve advised Mike not to touch the electric wires as it might be deadly.

B. Steve warned Mike not to touch the wires as it might be deadly.

C. Steve suggested that Mike not touch the electric wires as it might be deadly.

D. Steve did not allow Mike to touch the electric wires as it might be deadly.

Question 47: I did not see Susan off at the airport. I feel bad about it now.

A. I could have seen Susan off at the airport.

B. If only I had seen Susan off at the airport.

C. That I did not see Susan off at the airport escapes me now.

D. It suddenly dawns on me that I should have seen Susan off at the airport.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48: Sam doesn’t find it difficult to get up early in the morning.

A. Sam is in two minds about getting up early in the morning.

B. Sam is not hesitant to get up early in the morning.

C. Sam is accustomed to getting up early in the morning.

D. Sam is pleased with getting up early in the morning.

Question 49: People rumour that the Prince secretly got married to an ordinary girl.

A. The Prince is rumoured to have secretly got married to an ordinary girl.

B. It was rumoured that the Prince secretly got married to an ordinary girl.

C. The Prince was rumoured to secretly get married to an ordinary girl.

D. The Prince had secretly got married to an ordinary girl, as it was rumoured.

Question 50: There is no doubt that Martin is the best candidate for the job.

A. Martin is by all means the best candidate for the job.

B. Without question, Martin is the best candidate for the job.

C. In all likelihood, Martin is the best candidate for the job.

D. Quite by chance, Martin is the best candidate for the job.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
B	A	B	A	C
6	7	8	9	10
B	B	C	B	C
11	12	13	14	15
B	A	D	A	D
16	17	18	19	20
B	D	B	B	B
21	22	23	24	25
A	D	B	B	C
26	27	28	29	30
A	A	C	B	D
31	32	33	34	35
A	D	A	D	B
36	37	38	39	40
C	A	C	C	D
41	42	43	44	45
A	C	B	A	B
46	47	48	49	50
B	B	C	A	B

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions:

Question 1.

A. promise                   B. devise

C. surprise                   D. realise

Question 2.

A. comment                B. development

C. confidence             D. reference

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions:

Question 3.

A. voluntary                 B. necessary  

C. compulsory             D. stationary

Question 4.

A. advent                     B. pizza

C. survive                    D. rescue

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions:

Question 5. Works are written (A) by Vladimir Nabokov often (B) contain heroes and heroines who (C) have lived (D) in many places.

Question 6. Mostly (A) medical doctors have had (B) some training (C) in (D)psychology and psychiatry.

Question 7. Sandara has not rarely (A) missed a play (B) or concert since (C) she was seventeen years old (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions:

Question 8. I bought the car because it is in good quality and at a            price.

A. comfortable              B. valuable

C. reasonable              D. enjoyable

Question 9. More and more people were moving to Glasgow as they found it there             to earn a living.

A. so much easier 

B. much so easier 

C. so easier

D. by far the easiest

Question 10. You aren’t allowed to drive your car in the city centre at          rush hour because there is too much traffic then.

A. a                           B. an

C. x                           D. the

Question 11. I explained the grammar rule as           as I could, but many students are still confused.

A. simple                     B. simplified

C. simplistic                D. simply

Question 12. It’s amazing how Jenny acts as though she and Daren         serious problems at the moment.

A. aren’t having

B. weren’t having

C. hadn’t had

D. hadn’t been having

Question 13. When we were in Athens, I bought a         statuette.

A. white beautiful marble little

B. marble beautiful little white

C. beautiful little marble white

D. beautiful little white marble

Question 14. It         that many people are homeless after the floods.

A. is reported              B. reports

C. is reporting             D. reported

Question 15. The brain is made up of billions of neurons that differ          each other greatly               size and shape.

A. with – with              B. from – by

C. from – in                D. with - from

Question 16. I think the strikes will bring           some changes in management.

A. off                          B. on

C. down                      D. about

Question 17. I         most of my books                    to my roommates when I left college.

A. give – away               B. throw – away

C. put – away                 D. get – away

Question 18. Different conservation efforts in order to save endangered species.

A. have made

B. have been made

C. have done 

D. have been done

Question 19. Many Vietnamese families now own household          such as refrigerators, microwaves and cookers.

A. applicators

B. applications

C. applicants 

D. appliances

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following.

Question 20. The education system is a mirror that reflects the culture.

A. points                    B. explains 

C. shows                     D. gets

Question 21. It is an occasion when strength and sports are tested, friendship and solidarity was built and deepened.

A. practice                   B. power 

C. will                         D. competence

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Doctors have criticized the government for failing to invest enough in the health service.

A. praised                    B. blamed

C. accused                   D. commented

Question 23. The company will only employ competent engineers, so they want to see evidence of their work as well the references from previous employers.

A. proficient                  B. inconvenient 

C. ambitious                 D. unqualified

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respone to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Peter: “Do you like going to the cinema this evening, Susan?”     Susan: “              .”

A. I feel very bored.

B. That would be great

C. You’re welcome

D. I don’t agree, I’m afraid.

Question 25. Peter: “Oops, I’m terribly sorry!?”     Susan: “              .”

A. You’re welcome

B. That’s OK

C. That’s right

D. You’re right

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
A	A	C	C	A
6	7	8	9	10
A	A	C	D	C
11	12	13	14	15
D	B	D	A	B
16	17	18	19	20
D	A	B	D	C
21	22	23	24	25
B	A	D	B	B
26	27	28	29	30
C	A	C	A	C
31	32	33	34	35
B	B	D	C	C
36	37	38	39	40
B	A	B	B	C
41	42	43	44	45
A	C	D	B	B
46	47	48	49	50
B	A	D	D	D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

BRIDE PRICE

The custom of paying a bride price before marriage is still a well-established part of many African cultures. In paying a bride price, the family of the groom must provide payment to the family of the bride before the marriage is allowed. The bride price can vary greatly from culture to culture in Africa. In the Zulu and Swazi tribes of southern Africa, the bride price often takes the form of cattle. In Western African, kola nuts, shells, and other goods are often used for the payment of the bride price. The actual payment of money sometimes takes place, but the payment of goods is more frequent. The amount of paid in a bride price can also vary. In modern times, the bride price is occasionally quite small and its value is mainly symbolic. However, the bride price can still be quite high, especially among prominent or highly traditional families.

There are a number of justifications used to explain the payment of bride price. The first is that the bride price represents an acknowledgement of the expense the bride's family has gone in order to raise her and bring her up as a suitable bride for the groom. It also represents payment for the loss of a family member, since the bride will officially become a member of her husband's family and will leave her own. On a deeper level the bride price represents payment for the fact that the bride will bring children into the family of the groom, thereby increasing the wealth of the family. This concept is reinforced by the fact that the bride price must often be returned if the bride fails to bear children.

The payment of the bride price has quite a number of effects on African society. First, the payment of bride price acts to increase the stability of African family structures. Sons are dependent on their fathers and older relatives to help them pay the bride price of their wives, and this generally leads to greater levels of obedience and respect. The negotiations between the two families concerning the bride price allow the parents and other family members to meet and get to know one another before the marriage. Finally, since the bride price must often be repaid in case of divorce, the bride's family often works to make sure that any marital problems are solved quickly. Bride prices also work as a system of wealth distribution in African cultures. Wealthier families can afford to support the marriage of their son, and thus their wealth is transferred to other families.

Not all of the effects of bride price are so positive, however. One major disadvantage to the system of bride price is that women are often married to men much older than themselves. In many African cultures, the typical age for marriage amongst women is still quite young, lower than in many cases. Yet few men at this age would have the ability to raise the bride price to marry. Thus there is sometimes a significant age gap between husbands and wives. This cuts short the education of many young women. In addition, the husband, being far older, may die whilst the wife is still relatively young, leaving her with the burden of raising the children alone.

Question 1: According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of the bride price EXCEPT ______.

A. its amount and form can vary

B. its practice is occasionally only symbolic

C. it is a relatively new practice in Africa

D. it is generally higher among traditional families

Question 2: Why does the author mention “the payment of money” in paragraph 1?

A. To stress that the use of goods in the payment of bride price is most common.

B. To demonstrate the differences in how rich and poor families pay the bride price.

C. To illustrate how the practice of bride price has changed over time.

D. To demonstrate how expensive a bride price can be sometimes.

Question 3: The word "prominent" in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.

A. educated                B. important

C. religious                 D. conservative        

Question 4: The phrase "The first" in the passage refers to the first _________.

A. marriage                 B. bride price

C. payment                  D. justification

Question 5: It can be inferred from the paragraph 2 that African families ________.

A. never see their daughters after marriage

B. pay the bride price on the day of the wedding        

C. place more value on men than women

D. place great importance on childbirth

Question 6: The author uses the word "marital" to indicate that the problems are related to ________.

A. money                      B. laws

C. marriage                   D. pregnancy

Question 7: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Sometimes the bride's family has to return the bride distribution of wealth.

B. The initial negotiations over the bride price provide opportunities for two families to meet each other.

C. Animals are not an acceptable form of payment when it comes to paying the bride price

D. Without having to pay the bride price, African men would not respect their family members

Question 8: Why are women often married to older men, according to the passage?

A. Young men lack the financial ability to marry.

B. The legal age for marriage is lower for women than for men.

C. Families are eager to gain the bride price from their daughter's marriage.

D. Women live longer than men on average.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 9: The guest on our show has won the Open. He is the youngest professional golfer that has won this award so far.

A. The professional golfer who has won the Open so far is the youngest guest on our show.

B. The youngest professional golfer won the Open so far is the guest on our show.

C. The youngest guest on our show is the professional golfer winning the Open so far.

D. The guest on our show is the youngest professional golfer to win the Open so far.

Question 10: We arrived at the conference. Then we realized that our reports were still at home.

A. No sooner had we realized that our reports were still at home than we arrived at the conference.

B. Only after we arrived at the conference did we realize that our reports were still at home.

C. Not until we arrived at the conference that we realized that our reports were still at home.

D. Hardly had we arrived at the conference than we realized that our reports were still at home.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 11: Mr. Brown said to me, “Make good use of your time. You won’t get such an opportunity aga.”

A. Mr. Brown let me make use of my time, knowing that I wouldn’t get an opportunity again.

B. Mr. Brown ordered me to make use of my time, said that I wouldn’t get an opportunity again.

C. Mr. Brown offered me such an opportunity so that I could make use of my time.

D. Mr. Brown advised me to make use of my time as I wouldn’t get such an opportunity again.

Question 12: Perhaps, the violence was provoked by the fans of the visiting team.

A. It can have been the visiting team’s fans that set off the violence.

B. The fans of the visiting team must have been the people who began the violence.

C. There might have been some violence caused by the vistiting team’s fans.

D. The fans of the visiting team should have brought about the violence.

Question 13: People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

A. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

B. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.

C. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

D. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 14: Most people indulge ______ harmless fantasies to relieve the boredom of their lives.

A. of                            B. in

C. to                            D. for

Question 15: ______ they’ve already made their decision, there’s nothing much we can do.

A. Seeing that

B. On grounds that

C. Assuming that

D. For reason that

Question 16: ______, the town does not get much of an ocean breeze.

A. Locating near the coast

B. Despite location near the coast

C. Though located near the coast

D. In spite having location near the coast

Question 17: We missed the ferry yesterday morning. It  ______ by the time we arrived at the pier.

A. has already gone

B. was already going

C. had already gone

D. already went

Question 18: If the prisoners attempt to escape from prison, ______ immediately.

A. they will have caught

B. they will catch

C. they will be caught

D. they would be caught

Question 19: With its thousands of rocks and caves  ______ out of the water, Ha Long Bay has won international recognition.

A. being emerged        B. emerged

C. emerging                D. emerge

Question 20: Is that the man  ______?

A. whom you lent the money

B. you lent the money

C. whom did you lend the money

D. you lent the money to

Question 21: His reply was so  ______ that I didn’t know how to interpret it.

A. explicable               B. assertive

C. explanatory            D. ambiguous

Question 22: Shelly disagreed with the board’s decision. She  ______ and went to work for another company.

A. pursued                  B. resigned 

C. abandoned             D. retained

Question 23: As an ASEAN member, Vietnam has actively participated in the group’s programs and has also created new ______ and cooperation mechanisms.

A. initiatives                B. initiators

C. initiations               D. initiates

Question 24: Archaeologists think that massive floods could have  ______ the dinosaurs.

A. wiped out               B. laid off

C. put aside                D. taken down

Question 25: I’m going on business for a week, so I’ll be leaving everything ______.

A. on your guard

B. up to your eyes

C. in your capable hands

D. under the care of you

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	A	B	D	D
6	7	8	9	10
C	B	A	D	B
11	12	13	14	15
D	C	A	B	A
16	17	18	19	20
C	C	C	C	D
21	22	23	24	25
D	B	A	A	C
26	27	28	29	30
D	B	A	C	A
31	32	33	34	35
B	D	C	D	C
36	37	38	39	40
B	C	B	D	C
41	42	43	44	45
B	D	A	B	B
46	47	48	49	50
C	D	C	A	D

Read the following pasage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space from 1 to 5.

With job vacancies available all year round offering high salaries, Vietnam has been ranked the second best place in the world to teach English by TEFL Exchange, a community for teachers of English (1)______ a foreign language.

The site (2)______  that a foreign English teacher can earn between $1,200-2,200 a month in Vietnam, where the average annual income in 2016 was just $2,200. They can (3)______  a job any time of year and the best places to do so are the country’s three largest cities: Hanoi, Ho Chi Minh City and Da Nang. Candidates only need to hold a bachelor’s (4)______  and a TEFL (Teaching English as a Foreign Language) certificate.

English is an obligatory subject from sixth grade across Vietnam, but in large cities, many primary schools demand high (5)______. Foreign language centers have been thriving here, with students as young as three years old.

Question 1:

A. like                 B. similar

C. as                   D. for

Question 2:

A. guesses           B. estimates

C. judges             D. evaluates

Question 3:

A. hunt                B. search

C. find                 D. seek

Question 4:

A. degree            B. qualification

C. diploma           D. level

Question 5:

A. capacity          B. competency

C. experience       D. ability

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to intricate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 6 to 17.

Question 6: Pumpkin seeds, ______ protein and iron, are a popular snack.

A. that                         B. provide

C. which                     D. which provide

Question 7: The pair of jeans I bought for my son didn't fit him, so I went to the store and asked for ______.

A. the other ones         B. others ones

C. another pair            D. another jeans

Question 8: Billy was the youngest boy ______.

A. joining the club

B. that was joined the dub

C. to be admitted to the club

D. admitted to the club          

Question 9: By half past ten tomorrow morning I _______ along the motorway.

A. will be driving        B. will drive

C. am driving            D. drive

Question 10: We intend to _____ with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.

A. do in                       B. do down

C. do up                      D. do away

Question 11: The house that we used to live in is in a very ______ state.

A. negligent                B. neglected

C. negligible                D. neglectful

Question 12: The Louisiana Territory, an area ______ the size of France, was bought by the United States from France for $15,000,000 in 1803.

A. is four times as large as

B. more than four times

C. than more four times

D. four times as large as

Question 13: You haven't eaten anything since yesterday afternoon. You ______ be really hungry!

A. can                          B. will

C. must                       D. might

Question 14: The cosmopolitan flavor of San Francisco is enhanced by ______ shops and restaurants.

A. its many ethnic       B. its ethnicity

C. ethnicity                 D. an ethnic

Question 15: ______ through a telescope, Venus appears to go through changes in size and shape.

A. It has seen              B. It is seen 

C. When seen              D. Seeing

Question 16: Nowhere in the northern section of the United States ________ for growing citrus crops.

A. is there suitability of the climate

B. where the climate is suitable

C. the climate is suitable

D. is the climate suitable

Question 17: Beavers have been known to use logs, branches, rocks, and mud to build dams that are more than a thousand _______.

A. lengthy feet             B. feet long

C. long feet                 D. foot in length

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	B	C	A	B
6	7	8	9	10
D	C	C	A	D
11	12	13	14	15
B	B	C	A	C
16	17	18	19	20
D	B	B	D	B
21	22	23	24	25
B	B	C	D	A
26	27	28	29	30
D	B	A	D	D
31	32	33	34	35
A	D	B	A	B
36	37	38	39	40
C	B	C	D	A
41	42	43	44	45
A	D	D	C	B
46	47	48	49	50
A	B	C	D	A

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. diverse            B. current

C. justice             D. series

Question 2.

A. interview        B. compliment

C. sacrifice          D. represent

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. supportive      B. substantial 

C. compulsory     D. curriculum

Question 4.

A. listens             B. reviews 

C. protects           D. enjoys

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 5. If an alarm _____, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house.

A. installed

B. had installed

C. have installed

D. had been installed

Question 6. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’d sooner you _____ the whole truth yesterday.

A. have told                           B. told

C. could have told                 D. had told

Question 7. A fire in the _____ building could be a problem for fightfires.

A. ninety-storeys-tall

B. ninety-storey-tall

C. ninety-tall-storey

D. ninety-storeyed

Question 8. There has been little rain in this area for months, _____?

A. has it                             B. has there

C. hasn’t it                         D. hasn’t there

Question 9. She could _____ in the garden when we came around, which would explain why she didn’t hear the bell.

A. work

B. be working

C. have worked

D. have been working

Question 10. The party leader traveled the length and _____ of the country in an attempt to spread his message.

A. width                      B. distance

C. diameter                 D. breadth

Question 11. Many young people have objected to _____ marriage, which is decided by the parents of the bride and groom.

A. sacrificed                  B. contractual

C. agreed                      D. shared

Question 12. The doctor _____ the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.

A. looked into                 B. researched

C. examined                   D. investigated

Question 13. Karen is so _____ that she thinks she is more important than anyone else.

A. meticulous                B. pretentious

C. ironic                        D. susceptible

Question 14. “This room is filled with smoke”. “Yes, this is a ____ room.”

A. smoke-filled                B. smoke-filling

C. filling-smoke               D. smoking-filled

Question 15. As an ASEAN member, Vietnam has actively participated in the groups programs and has also created new_____ and cooperation mechanics.

A. initiatives                    B. initiators 

C. initiations                    D. initiates

Question 16. Vietnam U23 made not only Asia but also Europe keep a close eye on them. They _____ internationally.

A. have made headlines

B. had made headlines

C. have done headlines

D. did headlines

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17. The first few days at university can be very daunting, but with determination and positive attitude, freshman will soon fit in with the new environment.

A. interesting                    B. memorable

C. serious                         D. depressing

Question 18. The guards were ordered to get to the king’s room on the double.

A. in a large number

B. very quickly

C. on the second floor 

D. every two hours

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
A	D	C	C	C
6	7	8	9	10
D	B	B	D	D
11	12	13	14	15
B	C	B	A	A
16	17	18	19	20
A	D	B	D	C
21	22	23	24	25
C	B	C	B	D
26	27	28	29	30
D	D	A	B	B
31	32	33	34	35
C	C	A	A	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	A	C	B	D
41	42	43	44	45
A	A	B	B	D
46	47	48	49	50
B	D	B	D	B

---

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Chánh Nghĩa Lần 2. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang Chúng tôi để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong học tập.

Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu liên quan khác:

• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT An Mỹ Lần 2
• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Bình An Lần 2

Chúc các em học tập tốt!