Đề thi HSG cấp trường môn Tiếng Anh 8 năm 2020 có đáp án trường THCS Nguyễn Gia Thiều

TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN GIA THIỀU

TỔ KHOA HỌC XÃ HỘI

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 8

Năm học: 2020-2021

(Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút)

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts)

Digital cameras have changed the way that we look at (1)………………... Now there’s a device that changes the way we (2)……………….. them. This is the Lytro Illum, a digital camera that lets you refocus your (3)……………….. after you’ve taken them.

The camera uses something called light-field (4)……………….., which helps it catch millions of light rays with each image. Once you snap your photo, you (5)……………….. the camera’s software to choose what you want to focus on. You can also use it to shift perspective, create 3D images, and even animate still photos; (6)……………….. what Lytro calls ‘living pictures.’

The Illum is (7)……………….. to look like a DSLR camera. It comes equipped with a fast and (8)……………….. zoom lens and LCD touch-screen monitor… but all of this doesn’t come cheap. The Illum goes for 1600 dollars.

So, is this the (9)……………….. of photography? That’s still up for debate. Lytro released an earlier and much cheaper model in 2011 but the camera never (10)……………….. off. After all, the LytroIllum’s 2d processed image is only about five megapixels, a far cry from (11)……………….. some of today’s smart phones can shoot. And a number of smart (12)……………….. apps claim to imitate what light-field photography with varying success, for only a few (13)………………...

Still, other smart phone manufacturers are working on similar technology – but as they say, imitation is the sincerest form of flattery. And (14)……………….. year, Apple, patented its own light-field camera. So, (15)……………….. Lytro really is on to something.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. minority           B. robbery                   C. gramophone           D. monument

17. A. ploughed          B. prayed                     C. ordered                   D. published

18. A. character           B. headache                 C. stretcher                  D. chemistry

19. A. guitarist            B. passenger                C. generous                 D. village

20. A. physics             B. disease                    C. useful                      D. rehearse

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. humorous         B. generous                 C. mysterious              D. precious

22. A. favorite             B. identify                   C. influence                 D. government

23. A. orchestra           B. collector                 C. teenager                  D. moderate

24. A. biology             B. effective                 C. experience              D. chemical

25. A. veteran             B. lifeguard                 C. campaign                D. harvest

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. My family has decided to use .....................electricity by using more solar energy instead.

A. more                       B. less                         C. much                       D. fewer

27. Like Bob, his wife prefers clothes made .....................silk .....................those of cotton.

A. of/ to                       B. in/ to                       C. from/ more             D. from/ than

28. When my mother came to see my little sister last night, she ......................

A. have cried               B. was crying              C. were crying            D. is crying

29. The harder your brother works, the .....................money he earns.

A. better                      B. much                       C. more                       D. less

30. After a month, my new classmate got used to .....................in my new school.

A. study                      B. is studying              C. studying                  D. studied

31. At first I found .....................to get used to .....................on the other side of the road.

A. it difficult - drive    B. it difficult - driving                                   

C. difficult- driving     D. difficulty-drive

32. Yesterday evening, we were having dinner .....................

A. when the phone was ringing                      B. then the phone rang

C. when the phone rang                                  D. then the phone was ringing

33. You shouldn’t talk about her character only through her .....................

A. appearance             B. appear                     C. appeared                 D. appearing

34. Two teams try to make a fire .....................rubbing pieces .....................bamboo together.

A. by / of                     B. of / by                     C. with / by                 D. by / with

35. The film was .....................There was so much blood in it.

A. being                      B. horrify                    C. horrifying               D. horrified

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (100.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. Vinamilk company has served customers a lot of ………………….recently. (PRODUCE)

37. Linda and he family love all Vietnamese dishes, …………………. Nem. (SPECIAL)

38. There are a lot of …………………. in the competition. (CONTEST)

39. My keys were locked inside the car…………….…., the aside window was open. (LUCK)

40. All the………………….between Paris and Ha Noi have been cancelled due to fog. (FLY)

41. Hoa’s aunt has cut herself and it’s …………………. quite badly. (BLOOD)

42. Bell …………………. demonstrated his invention. (SUCCESS)

43. There is no easy ………………….to this problem. (SOLVE)

44. I wrote ………………….letters of application but I got no reply. (END)

45. …………………. dark clouds appeared and it began to rain. (FORTUNATE)

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. I’d rather you (not use) …………………….the office phone too often.

47. Let all of dirty clothes (collect) ……………………. by 8 o’clock tomorrow morning.

48. Mrs. Van Anh and some of her friends felt that they (follow) ……………………. on the way to her office this morning.

49. Going fishing with friends at weekends is very (interest) …………………….

50. Hoang was delighted (receive) ……………………. his mother’s letter this afternoon.

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (100.2 = 2.0 pts)

For many people, traveling by plane is an exciting experience. Others, however, find the whole idea quite terrifying, (51)………….……….. flying is no more dangerous (52)………….……….. any other form of travel and some expects say it is considerably safer. It is known, however, that most accident occurs (53)………….……….. taking off and landing when a (54)………….……….. decisions are vitally important. The people (55)………….……….. job is to look (56)………….……….. the passengers, the stewards and stewardnesses play an important part in helping passengers to (57)………….……….. safe and comfortable. Indeed for many passengers being (58)………….……….. such care of is all part of the total experience. (59)………….……….. other form of travel involves waiting for people in quite the same (60)………….……….., with food, drink, newspapers, magazines, music, and even video films.

51. A. although           B. too                          C. and                          D. because

52. A. than                  B. as                            C. then                         D. with

53. A. while                B. during                     C. for                           D. through

54. A. leader’s             B. chief’s                     C. driver’s                   D. pilot’s

55. A. whose               B. which                      C. their                        D. that

56. A. for                     B. up                           C. after                        D. round

57. A. feel                   B. rest                          C. experience              D. lie

58. A. given                B. kept                         C. shown                     D. taken

59. A. Any                  B. No                           C. All                          D. Not

60. A. way                   B. kind                        C. sort                         D. part

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (100.2 =2.0 pts)

Christmas is always held (61)………….……….. December the twenty fifth every year. Every family in England decorates a Christmas tree and puts (62)………….……….. in the middle of the living room. And Santa Claus plays an important (63)………….……….. in the festival. There is a poem to relate him. In 1823, the patron saint of children, Saint Nicholas appeared in a poem (64)………….……….. A Visit Saint Nicholas. The character in the poem

(65)………….……….. a fat jolly man who wore a (66)………….……….. suit and gave children (67)………….……….. on Christmas Eve. The poem, which was (68)………….……….. by Clement Clarke Moore, an American professor, became popular (69)………….……….. the USA. Santa Claus is based (70)………….……….. the description of Saint Nicholas in this poem.

III. Read the text then answer the questions below: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Every year people in many countries learn English. Some of them are young children. Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn at school. Others study by themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in films, on television, in the office or among their friends. Most people must work hard to learn English.

Why do all these people learn English? It’s not difficult to answer this question. Many boys and girls learn English at school because “it” is one of their subjects. Many adults learn English because it is useful for their work. Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies because some of their books are written in English at the college or university. Other people learn English because they want to read newspapers or magazines in English.

71. According to/ writer/ who/ learn/ English?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

72. In line two/ second paragraph/ what/ word/ “it” refer to?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

73. Where/ many boys/ girls/ learn English?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

74. Why/ adults/ learn English?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

75. What/ teenagers/ often learn/ English for?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Quang Huy was very sad that he wasn’t accepted in our soccer team.

-> Quang Huy is very sad not ……………………………………………………………

77. When the prisoner was asked about his childhood, he hates it.

-> The prisoner hates ………..……………………………………………..…………….

78. “How many cars are there in front of your house, Thuy Dung?”, Tung said

-> Tung asked …………………..........................................................................................

79. John and Mary haven’t seen each other for over five months.

-> The last time ……………………………………………………………………….…

80. My new classmate, Ngoc Anh, found it easy to translate that text into English.

-> My new classmate, Ngoc Anh, had no ……………………………………………….

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Your father/ look/ thinner now. he/ lose/ weight?

-> ………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

82. When/ I/ see/ our form teacher/ early this morning/ he/ drive/ car.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

83. This/ be/ first time/ these foreigners/ see/ rice paddies.

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

84. Would/ mind/ if/ I/ borrow/ your pen? – Sorry./ use/ it.

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

85. There/ no point/ persuading/ Nam/ join/ my chess club.

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

III. Write (over 150 words) about the festival(s) that you have joined recently: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…, and has about 150 words or more)

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. pictures 2. focus 3. photographs 4. technology 5. use

6. creating 7. designed 8. powerful 9. future 10. took

11. what 12. phone 13. dollars 14. last 15. maybe

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt)

16. C. gramophone 17. D. published 18. C. stretcher 19. A. guitarist 20. B. disease

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

21. C. mysterious 22. B. identify 23. B. collector 24. D. chemical 25. C. campaign

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. B. less 27. A. of/ to 28. B. was crying 29. C. more 30. C. studying

31. B. it difficult - driving 32. C. when the phone rang 33. A. appearance 34. A. by / of 35. C. horrifying

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (100.2 =2.0 pts)

36. products 37. especially 38. contestants 39. luckily 40. flights

41. bleeding 42. successfully 43. solution 44. endless 45. unfortunately

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. did not use 47. be collected 48. were being followed 49. interesting 50. to receive

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (100.2 = 2.0 pts)

51. A. although 52. A. than 53. B. during 54. D. pilot’s 55. A. whose

56. C. after 57. A. feel 58. D. taken 59. B. No 60. A. way

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (100.2 =2.0 pts)

61. on 62. it 63. part/ role 64. called 65. was

66. red 67. presents 68. written 69. with 70. on

III. Read the text then answer the questions below: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. According to the writer, who learn English?

-> English is learnt by young children, teenagers and adults./

(Or) Young children, teenagers, adults learn English.

72. In line two of the second paragraph, what does the word “it” refer to?

-> In line two of the second paragraph, the word “it” refers to “English”.

73. Where do many boys and girls learn English?

-> Many boys and girls learn English/ They learn English at school.

74. Why do adults learn English?

-> Because they need it for their job/ It is useful for their work.

75. What do teenagers often learn English for?

-> Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Quang Huy was very sad not to be accepted in our soccer team.

77. The prisoner hates being asked about his childhood.

78. Tung asked Thuy Dung how many cars there were in front of her/his house.

79. The last time John and Mary saw each other was over five months ago.

80. My new classmate, Ngoc Anh, had no difficulty in translating that text into English.

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Your father looks thinner now. Has he lost weight?

82. When I saw our form teacher early this morning, he was driving a car.

83. This is the first time these foreigners have seen (the) rice paddies.

84. Would you mind if I borrowed your pen? - Sorry. I am using it.

85. There is no point in persuading Nam to join in my chess club.

III. Write (over 150 words) about the festival(s) that you have joined recently: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show any of the student’s proper names/ school/ village…)

- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “The name of the festival…”. (0.5pt)

- The body: Write about: Where is was held; how long it lasted; the activities/ competitions; how was it organized; the people taking part in; the sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0)

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas or what they thought about the festival (s).

(0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

- Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

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