Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Tiên Du Lần 3

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT TIÊN DU LẦN 3

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Câu 1: A. referee

B. understand

C. magazine

D. emigrate

Câu 2: A. offer

B. media

C. mature

D. tablet

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The Pirahã are an isolated Amazonian tribe of hunter-gatherers who live deep in the Brazilian rainforest. The tribe has survived, their culture intact, for centuries, although there are now only around 200 left. The Pirahã, who communicate mainly through hums and whistles, have fascinated ethnologists for years, mainly because they have no words for numbers. They use only three words to count: one, two, and many.

We know about the Pirahã thanks to an ex-hippy and former missionary, Dan Everett, now a professor of Phonetics, who spent seven years with the tribe in the 70s and 80s. Everett discovered a world without numbers, without time, without words for colours, without subordinate clauses and without a past tense.

Their language, he found, was not just simple grammatically; it was restricted in its range of sounds and differed between the sexes. For the men, it has just eight consonants and three vowels; for the women, who have the smallest number of speech sounds in the world, seven consonants and three vowels. To the untutored ear, the language sounds more like humming than speech. The Pirahã can also whistle their language, which is how men communicate when hunting.

Their culture is similarly constrained. The Pirahã can’t write, have little collective memory, and no concept of decorative art. In 1980, Everett tried to teach them to count: be explained basic arithmetic to an enthusiastic group keen to learn the skills needed to trade with other tribes. After eight months, not one could count to ten; even one plus one is beyond them. The experiment seemed to confirm Everett’s theory: the tribe just couldn’t conceive the concept of number.

The Pirahã’s inability to count is important because it seems to disapprove Noam Chomsky’s influential Theory of Universal Grammar, which holds that the human mind has a natural capacity for language, and that all languages share a basic rule structure, which enables children to understand abstract concepts such as number. One of Chomsky’s collaborators has recently gone on an expedition with Everett to study the tribe. We do not yet know if the Pirahã have persuaded him to change his theory.

Câu 3: What does Chomsky’s Theory of Universal Grammar hold?

A. Children do not grasp abstract concepts until they grow up.

B. Children and adults have different language abilities.

C. All languages have some rules in common.

D. Some languages do not have words for numbers.

Câu 4: Everett’s experiment to teach the Pirahã to count revealled that the tribe …………….

A. was able to learn number but no one taught them previously.

B. just couldn’t take in the concept of number.

C. had its own way of saying numbers.

D. couldn’t count to 1000.

Câu 5: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to …………….

A. the act of humming

B. the Pirahã’s language

C. the Pirahã tribe

D. the language of males

Câu 6: The word “untutored” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to …………….

A. wrong

B. foreign

C. untrained

D. damaged

Câu 7: The word “constrained” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to …………….

A. simplified

B. complicated

C. limited

D. varied

Câu 8: What is NOT true about the Piraha tribe?

A. The lack of words for numbers in their language has interested ethnologists.

B. They have successfully kept their culture as it was originally.

C. Their language as well as their culture is restricted.

D. They have not decreased in numbers.

Câu 9: What is the passage mainly about?

A. A study by Professor Dan Everett

B. A defect in Chomsky’s famous theory

C. The unusual language of the Pirahã’s tribe

D. Reasons behind the humming and whistling of the Pirahã tribe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 10: The manager has been biting off more than he can chew when he took on five projects at the same time.

A. practical enough

B. clever enough

C. too ambitious

D. too aggressive

Câu 11: Many people move to urban areas seeking for job opportunity as well as stable employment.

A. temporary

B. steady

C. durable

D. long-lasting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Câu 12: She hasn't paid as much attention to her children as she did since she ……………. working.

A. started

B. would start

C. was starting

D. starts

Câu 13: They’ve written to each other for years, but this is the first time they’ve met …………….

A. face to face

B. mind to mind

C. heart to heart

D. hand to hand

Câu 14: People will travel in solar-powered cars in the future, …………….?

A. will people

B. will they

C. won’t people

D. won’t they

Câu 15: If you ……………. at a computer screen for too long, it may damage your eyesight.

A. peep

B. glance

C. stare

D. look

Câu 16: ……………. the Sun is, ……………. the shadow is.

A. The higher / the low

B. The more high/ the more low

C. The more higher / the more lower

D. The higher / the lower

Câu 17: One ……………. method for keeping our mind active is doing crossword puzzles.

A. popularly

B. popularity

C. popularize

D. popular

Câu 18: What's James so happy about? He looks like …………….

A. tired dog

B. dog with a bone

C. a dog with two cubs

D. a dog with two tails

Câu 19: I suggest that Sam ……………. the directions carefully before assembling the bicycle.

A. to read

B. reads

C. read

D. reading

Câu 20: Because of the coming examination, I am under a lot of study …………….

A. responsibility

B. activities

C. pressure

D. confidence

Câu 21: I remember she wore a ……………. dress to go out with her boyfriend last week.

A. white Vietnamese cotton

B. cotton white Vietnamese

C. white cotton Vietnamese

D. Vietnamese white cotton

Câu 22: My career adviser talks to me ……………. he is my father.

A. because

B. although

C. like

D. if

Câu 23: ……………. to help, we had already put out the fire.

A. No sooner the firemen had arrived

B. By the time the firemen arrived

C. After the firemen arrived

D. Until the firemen arrive

Câu 24: ……………. the homework, he was allowed to go out with his friends.

A. Finish

B. Having finished

C. To finish

D. Finishing

Câu 25: A new primary school ……………. near my house recently.

A. has been built

B. has been building

C. have been built

D. have been building

Câu 26: Students use the library's computers to get access ……………. the Internet.

A. to

B. for

C. with

D. by

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Câu 27: A. career

B. advice

C. activate

D. apply

Câu 28: A. invented

B. coughed

C. introduced

D. developed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 29: Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.

A. conservation

B. number

C. variety

D. changes

Câu 30: The main threat to the survival of these creatures comes from their loss of habitat.

A. usual behaviour

B. favourite activity

C. place of living

D. rituals

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Câu 31: Nick gave me some advice. I was saved from bankruptcy.

A. Had it not been for Nick’s advice, I would have gone bankrupt.

B. It was Nick’s advice that saved me from bankrupt.

C. If it weren’t for Nick’s advice, I would go bankrupt.

D. I was saved from bankruptcy thanks to Nick gave me some advice.

Câu 32: You can feel more at ease by taking part in group dating. It's the only way.

A. The only way you is by taking part in group dating can feel more at ease.

B. Only by taking part in group dating can you feel more at ease.

C. The way you can feel more at ease is taking part in only group dating.

D. By taking part in group dating can you only feel more at ease.

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Câu 33: The last time I went to the gym was a week ago.

A. My going to the gym lasted a week.

B. I have not been to the gym for a week.

C. At last I went to the gym after a week.

D. A week ago, I often went to the gym.

Câu 34: “I would like a cup of coffee, please,” Mr. Smith said to the waitress.

A. Mr. Pike advised the waitress to drink a cup of coffee.

B. Mr. Pike ordered the waitress to bring him a cup of coffee.

C. Mr. Pike warned the waitress not to drink coffee.

D. Mr. Pike invited the waitress a cup of coffee.

Câu 35: It wasn't obligatory to submit my assignment today.

A. I mustn't submit my assignment today.

B. My assignment must have been submitted today.

C. My assignment was required to submit by today.

D. I needn't have submitted my assignment today.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Câu 36: Helen and Sarah are talking about their school’s field trip.

Helen: This is the best field trip we’ve ever had.

Sarah: ……………. Everyone enjoyed it to the fullest.

A. Never mind.

B. I don’t think that’s a good idea.

C. You’re right.

D. I totally disagree.

Câu 37: Peter: How are you today? Susan: …………….

A. I feel like a millions stars.

B. I feel like a millions dollars.

C. I feel your ears burning.

D. I can feel it in my bone.

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Câu 38: In fact, I and Peter has lost touch with for a long time.

A. with

B. has

C. a

D. In fact

Câu 39: Domestic cats often show loyalty to their owners by leaving freshly killed prey such as birds for they to find.

A. to

B. such as

C. leaving

D. they

Câu 40: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in the film industry.

A. former

B. film directions

C. expand

D. successful

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from.

False, or fake, images are not new. In fact, the earliest fake photos date back to the 19th century. A famous example is the image called “The Cardiff Giant". The photo seems to show the discovery of a giant human. It was fake, but some people thought it was real.

With computer technology, it is much easier now to make and share fake images. In 2004 another unusual photo spread around the world by email. Like the Cardiff Giant photo, it seemed to show the discovery of a very large human body. The photo usually came with a story under a title such as: “Giant Skeleton Unearthed!” Both the stories and the image were amazing. But there was a problem - none of it was true.

The recent giant skeleton photo was the work of a Canadian illustrator. He made it for a digital art contest. The image was really a mix of three different photos. Making the image, says the illustrator, was not difficult. In fact, it took less than an hour and a half to create.

So, how is it possible to tell if a photo is real? First, look for a source. Where does the photo come from? Is there a photographer’s name? Look for clues in the photo. Sometimes the direction of light and shadows is wrong. Is anything in the photo too big or too small, or is anything missing?

(Source: National Geographic Learning)

Câu 41: The word “clues" in paragraph 4 almost means …………….

A. effects

B. images

C. hints

D. withdrawals

Câu 42: According to the passage, “The Cardiff Giant” and “Giant Skeleton Unearthed!” both show …………..

A. a very large human body

B. a monster

C. a magic human being

D. a wizard

Câu 43: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ……………..

A. The Cardiff Giant

B. image

C. computer technology

D. to make and share fake images

Câu 44: The best title of the passage can be “…………………”.

A. The Cardiff Giant

B. Fake or Real?

C. Giant Skeleton Unearthed

D. Fake photos

Câu 45: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about fake photos?

A. Fake photos are always created by illustrators.

B. A fake photo is a mix of many photos.

C. It is not difficult to make a fake photo.

D. The most common fake photos are about giant humans.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

DESPERATE TO GO TO SCHOOL

Truancy has become a serious problem in ....( 46 ).... schools in recent years. In an attempt to tackle this problem one school introduced a new scheme to ....( 47 ).... students to attend as many classes as possible. Pupils who achieved a 100% attendance record throughout the whole academic year were rewarded with an all inclusive weekend school trip to an activity centre ....( 48 ).... they would be able to have a go at outdoor activities such as climbing, abseiling and white water rafting.

One student was so excited to qualify for this free weekend away that he even went to school with a broken wrist. He hurt his wrist when he fell off his bike on the way to school, but he was so worried about maintaining his 100% attendance that he didn’t tell his teachers or parents ....( 49 ).... the school day had finished. He eventually admitted to his mother what had happened, when she noticed that he was having difficulty eating his dinner and asked him what was wrong. She took him to hospital that night, where they put his arm in plaster and he was able to go back to school the next day.

Fortunately, he was fully ....( 50 ).... from his accident in time to go on the trip.

Câu 46: A. each

B. many

C. a little

D. much

Câu 47: A. encourage

B. force

C. make

D. suggest

Câu 48: A. that

B. who

C. which

D. where

Câu 49: A. while

B. until

C. before

D. when

Câu 50: A. repaired

B. fixed

C. improved

D. recovered

ĐÁP ÁN

1	D	11	A	21	A	31	A	41	C
2	C	12	A	22	C	32	B	42	A
3	C	13	A	23	B	33	B	43	D
4	B	14	D	24	B	34	B	44	B
5	B	15	C	25	A	35	D	45	C
6	C	16	D	26	A	36	C	46	B
7	C	17	D	27	C	37	B	47	A
8	D	18	D	28	A	38	B	48	D
9	C	19	C	29	C	39	D	49	B
10	B	20	C	30	C	40	B	50	D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold, underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. enlarge

B. enterprise

C. enlist

D. enrich

Question 2: A. snatched

B. rehearsed

C. robbed

D. mocked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. fortify

B. dramatic

C. heritage

D. marketing

Question 4: A. passenger

B. aggression

C. accompany

D. division

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Since Janie started regular treatment, her tumor shrinked in size.

A. getting larger

B. getting smaller

C. getting thicker

D. getting better

Question 6: It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger one.

A. vital

B. unnecessary

C. urgent

D. unavoidable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: Once your reputation as an actor is established, you can afford to be more selective about parts you accepted.

A. choosing unsuitably

B. choosing recklessly

C. choosing your biased things

D. unable to choose

Question 8: People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in the disaster-stricken areas.

A. awareness

B. uncertainty

C. reluctance

D. willingness

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 9: Hope she will win, ............?

A. will she

B. shall you

C. won’t you

D. won’t she

Question 10: On driving home from office,I saw the lightning ........ the sky in a heavy rain.

A. to flash

B. flashed

C. flash

D. being flashed

Question 11: After the massive leak of Panama Papers, he was given a lot of questions, ........ he couldn’t answer.

A. almost every of which

B. much of which

C. most of which

D. neither of which

Question 12: If she wasn’t busily preparing for the meeting tomorrow, she would ............ pleased to give you a lift.

A. have been

B. have not been

C. have had been

D. not have felt

Question 13: Inside the house were two .................... cupboards

A. small northern antique Europe ironwood

B. antique northern Europe small ironwood

C. antique small Europe northern ironwood

D. small antique northern Europe ironwood

Question 14: The audience clapped as the cast came out on the stage to take their ...............

A. bow

B. performance

C. seat

D. picture

Question 15:

In the book, students can find ................ on some soft skills that will serve them well in the future.

A. a lot of informations

B. many useful pieces of information

C. a great number of information

D. many information

Question 16: The better the weather is, ................

A. the most crowded the beaches get

B. the most the beaches get crowded

C. the more crowded the beaches get

D. the more the beaches get crowded

Question 17: She nearly died of a heart attack .................... by fear.

A. brought on

B. brought down

C. brought off

D. brought over

Question 18: Peter is completely ................. Not only is he lazy but he is also dishonest.

A. unemployed

B. employed

C. employable

D. unemployable

Question 19: If you have symptoms of COVID-19, seek medical .............. immediately.

A. contemplation

B. focus

C. attention

D. consideration

Question 20: My whole family will be coming, so the maid has to cater .................. twelve on Sunday.

A. to

B. for

C. of

D. under

Question 21: .................. late for work every day last week, Ned was dismissed this morning.

A. Arriving

B. Having arrived

C. Being arrived

D.To be arrived

Question 22: Since the juvenile crime rates continue to ascend, the public insists that law .... be improved.

A. application

B. enforcement

C. execution

D. obedience

Question 23: I’ve been in bad .............. with Tiffany since she found out that I started rumour about her.

A. taste

B. words

C. odour

D. vibe

ĐÁP ÁN

1	B	11	C	21	B	31	D	41	D
2	C	12	A	22	B	32	D	42	B
3	B	13	D	23	C	33	A	43	C
4	A	14	A	24	B	34	C	44	B
5	B	15	B	25	B	35	D	45	D
6	D	16	C	26	C	36	B	46	C
7	B	17	A	27	A	37	B	47	A
8	D	18	D	28	C	38	D	48	C
9	D	19	C	29	A	39	C	49	D
10	C	20	B	30	D	40	C	50	B

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks.

The ability to be independent is something that not everyone possesses. (1) ..................... you need to be independent in order to survive in the world. Learning to support yourself is (2) ..................... for any success you ever hope to achieve.

At the end of the day, you only have yourself to fall back on, so it is exceedingly important to be able to handle things on your own. It is all about being secure with who you are and what you believe in. It is  extremely empowering knowing that you are (3) ..................... control of your own life and your own choices. It is much more beneficial to listen to the voice inside yourself rather than the berating (4) ..................... of others.

We rely on others far more than it is necessary. People put their happiness in the hands of a significant other, thinking this will bring them fulfillment. This is a fatal error too many people make these days. Do you always want to feel dependent on someone else? Of course not. Not only are you limiting yourself, you are more than likely becoming a burden to this person. We need to learn how to make decisions on our own. I understand asking your friends their opinion on a fashion decision, but do we really need to consult others on every minimal decision we have to make? Think of things (5) ..................... are in your best interest and choose that option.

Question 1. A. However

B. Therefore

C. But

D. Thereby

Question 2. A. fundamental

B. fundament

C. fundamentalism

D. fundamentals

Question 3. A. out

B. under

C. in

D. on

Question 4. A. opinions

B. feelings

C. choices

D. thoughts

Question 5. A. why

B. when

C. that

D. what

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 6. Educators are complaining that students rely on social media so much that they lose the ability to think critically.

A. insist on

B. depend on

C. decide on

D. dismissed

Question 7. My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.

A. be optimistic

B. be pessimistic

C. be confident

D. be smart

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 8. Don't tell Jane anything about the surprise party for Jack. She has got a big mouth.

A. can't eat a lot

B. hates parties

C. talks too much

D. can keep secrets

Question 9. We greatly respect my teacher for all of the best things that she brought to us.

A. look up to

B. look forwards

C. look down on

D. look for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 10. Susan rarely stays up late, ...........................?

A. is she

B. isn't she

C. does she

D. doesn't she

Question 11. Kevin enjoyed working with children so much that he decided to pursue a ...........................teaching.

A. career

B. duty

C. task

D. work

Question 12. There are dozens of TV channels, ...........................operate 24 hours a day.

A. some

B. some of them

C. some of those

D. some of which

Question 13. ...........................the homework, he was allowed to go out with his friends.

A. To finish

B. Finish

C. Finishing

D. Having finished

Question 14. Tom denied ...........................part in the fighting at school.

A. take

B. to take

C. taking

D. to taking

Question 15. Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetables can be ...........................to health

A. crucial

Β. receptive

C. supportive

D. destructive

Question 16. Many exam candidates lose marks simply ...........................they do not read the questions properly.

A. because of

B. because

C. due to

D. although

Question 17. We used to ........................... all sorts of things when our parents went out.

A. get on with

B. get off with

C. get through to

D. get up to

Question 18. Stress and tiredness often lead to lack of ............................

A. concentration

B. concentrated

C. concentrate

D. concentrator

Question 19. If I were you, I ...........................part in this competition.

A. have taken

B. take

C. would take

D. will take

Question 20. Tom handed in the test and awaited the results ............................

A. with bated breath

B. in the same breath

C. out of breath

D. under his breath

Question 21. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a ........................ day.

A. snow

B. windy

C. foggy

D. rainy

Question 22. He ...........................only three letters to his parents since he joined the army.

A. has written

B. wrote

C. would write

D. had written

Question 23. She didn't enjoy her first year at college because she failed to ........................... her new friends.

A. get on with

B. come in for

C. look down on

D. go down with

Question 24. We were quite impressed by the ...........................students who came up with the answer to our question almost instantly.

A. big-headed

B. quick-witted

C. bad-tempered

D. absent-minded

ĐÁP ÁN

1	A	11	A	21	D	31	B	41	B
2	A	12	D	22	A	32	C	42	D
3	C	13	D	23	A	33	A	43	D
4	A	14	C	24	B	34	B	44	C
5	C	15	D	25	A	35	C	45	A
6	B	16	B	26	C	36	B	46	D
7	A	17	D	27	C	37	A	47	B
8	D	18	A	28	B	38	B	48	B
9	C	19	C	29	D	39	A	49	B
10	C	20	A	30	C	40	D	50	D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 1: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.

A. Not only did the basketball team know they lost the match but they blamed to each other as well.

B. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.

C. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

D. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.

Question 2: Crazianna is a big country. Unfortunately, it has never received respect from its neighbours.

A. It is Crazianna, a big country, that has never received respect from its neighbours.

B. Crazianna is such a big country that it has never received respect from its neighbours.

C. Though Crazianna is a big country, it has never received respect from its neighbours.

D. Crazianna has never received respect from its neighbours because it is a big country.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 3: Meal time is a great time for family members to talk about that is going on in their lives.

A. is

B. talk about

C. that

D. on in

Question 4: Playing time together is teachable moemts to share lessons about sportsmanship, teamwork, perseverance, and to be tolerant of others.

A. is

B. about

C. to be

D. others

Question 5: The school officials are considering a comprehensive planning to alleviate the problem of overcrowding in the dormitories.

A. are

B. planning

C. alleviate

D. overcrowding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 6: A. maps

B. laughs

C. calls

D. costs

Question 7

: A. vacation

B. nation

C. question

D. exhibition

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 8: A. summer

B. carpet

C. visit

D. include

Question 9: A. stimulate

B. sacrifice

C. devastate

D. determine

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

As Hurricane Florence zeroes in on the southeastern US, scientists are warning that climate change is exacerbating the effect of tropical storms. The powerful Category 4 Atlantic weather-front is slow moving, an increasingly common phenomenon that poses a different manner of threat to states in its path. In the event that Florence stalls or comes to a halt altogether over land, it has the potential to deposit catastrophic quantities of rainwater, posing a risk of severe flash flooding.

While the high winds and waves generated by faster storms moving inland from the ocean pose a significant danger to human life and property, the effect of heavy rain can be just as devastating, if not more so. When Hurricane Harvey hit in August 2017, it dropped 60 inches of rain over Houston, Texas, flooding the streets, leaving 93 dead and hundreds more having to be rescued by boat, causing millions of dollars-worth of damage.

James Kossin of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration published a study in the journal Nature in June suggesting that slow-moving tropical cyclones, which would include those like Florence and Harvey, have become more common over the last 70 years, dropping in speed by 10 per cent in that time. According to Mr Kossin, global warming as a result of man-made air pollution is causing the poles to become warmer, which in turn reduces the difference in temperature between the Arctic and Antarctic and the equator, altering atmospheric pressure and slowing down the whipping currents of wind that pass between them and drive hurricanes.

(Adapted from https://www.independent.co.uk/environment)

Question 10: The best title for this passage could be .......................

A. danger of hurricane in US

B. climate change and the threat from tropical storms

C. climate change and people activities

D. storms cause millions of dollars-worth of damage

Question 11: Which statement about Hurricane Harvey is probably TRUE according to the passage?

A. It caused the floods in all the streets in US.

B. It caused a significant danger to people and property.

C. It made citizens in Texas suffer from floods and damage.

D. It made residents lose millions of dollars.

Question 12: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ......................?

A. tropical cyclones

B. a study

C. Florence

D. Harvey

Question 13: In the 3rd paragraph, James Kossin suggests that .........................

A. over the last 70 years, human activities have made global warming worse.

B. over the last 70 years, people causes the poles to become hotter.

C. over the last 70 years, Florance and Harvey are common in Texas.

D. over the last 70 years, slow-moving tropical cyclones have become more common.

Question 14: The word “altering” in paragraph 3 means .........................

A. fastening

B. changing

C. remaining

D. keeping

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 15: In the near future, the government will instigate new measures to combat ...................

A. terrorist

B. terrorism

C. terrorize

D. terror

Question 16: Many people think that in some more years we will see the complete of newspapers and .................. magazines due to the Internet.

A. disappear

B. disappearance

C. appear

D. appearing

Question 17: A specific area of biotechnology that shows great promise for treatment and cure of life- .............. diseases.

A. developing

B. threatening

C. hoping

D. fitting

Question 18: We sometimes go away from the city to the countryside for a .................... of fresh air.

A. feeling

B. sip

C. swallow

D. breath

Question 19: The idea of building a .................. with human intelligence is not only ambitious but also highly unconventional.

A. robot

B. corporation

C. line

D. road

Question 20: The building ................ last year.

A. destroyed

B. has destroyed

C. was destroyed

D. has been destroyed

Question 21: My grandmother was a lovely person who .................... pleasure from helping others.

A. gathered

B. derived

C. deduced

D. collected

Question 22: .................. of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.

A. Instead

B. In place

C. On behalf

D. On account

ĐÁP ÁN

1	C	11	C	21	B	31	B	41	C
2	B	12	A	22	C	32	C	42	C
3	C	13	D	23	A	33	C	43	D
4	C	14	B	24	C	34	D	44	D
5	B	15	B	25	D	35	C	45	A
6	C	16	B	26	C	36	D	46	D
7	C	17	B	27	A	37	C	47	B
8	D	18	D	28	D	38	C	48	C
9	D	19	A	29	A	39	A	49	B
10	B	20	C	30	A	40	B	50	D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.

Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has been a growing appreciation of the importance of biological diversity, the (1).................. of species in a particular ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human well-being. Much has been written about the diversity of terrestrial organisms, particularly the exceptionally rich life associated tropical rain¬forest habitats. Relatively little has been said, (2) .................., about diversity of life in the sea even though coral reef systems are comparable to rain forests in terms of richness of life.

An alien exploring Earth would probably (3) .................. priority to the planet's dominants - most distinctive feature - the ocean. Humans have a bias toward land (4) .................. sometimes gets in the way of truly examining global issues. Seen from far away, it is easy to realize that landmasses occupy only one-third of the Earth's surface. Given that two thirds of the Earth's surface is water and that marine life lives at all levels of the ocean, the total three-dimensional living space of the ocean is perhaps 100 times (5) .................. than that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all life on Earth even though the ocean has fewer distinct species.

  (Source: https://vndoc.com)

Question 1:

A. number

B. each

C. amount

D. few

Question 2: 

A. therefore

B. thus

C. however

D. instead

Question 3: 

A. make

B. have

C. give

D. bring

Question 4:

A. who

B. when

C. that

D. whose

Question 5: 

A. higher

B. bigger

C. greater

D. larger

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 6 to 10. 

History books recorded that the first film with sound was The Jazz Singer in 1927. But sound films, or talkies, did not suddenly appear after years of silent screenings. From the earliest public performances in 1896, films were accompanied by music and sound effects. These were produced by a single pianist, a small band, or a full-scale orchestra; large movie theatres could buy sound-effect machines. Research into sound that was reproduced at exactly at the same time as the pictures - called "synchronized sound" – began soon after the very first films were shown. With synchronized sound, characters on the movie screen could sing and speak. As early as 1896, the newly invented gramophone, which played a large disc carrying music and dialogue, was used as a sound system. The biggest disadvantage was that the sound and pictures could become unsynchronized if, for example, the gramophone needle jumped or if the speed of the projector changed. This system was only effective for a single song or dialogue sequence.

In the "sound-on-film" system, sound was recorded as a series of marks on celluloid which could be read by an optical sensor. These signals would be placed on the film alongside the image, guaranteeing synchronization. Short feature films were produced in this way as early as 1922. This system eventually brought us "talking pictures".

(Source: https://vndoc.com)

Question 6: The passage is mainly about the...................

A.  research into sound reproduction.

B.  development of sound with movies.

C.  disadvantages of synchronized sound.

D.  history of silent movies.

Question 7: According to the passage, films using sound effects were screened ...................

A. as early as 1922

B. in 1927

C. before 1896

D. as early as 1896

Question 8: The word "screenings" is closest in meaning to "....................................".

A. projections

B. revelations

C. demonstrations

D. diversions

Question 9: Which of the following is not mentioned as a producer of sound to accompany movies?

A: a Jazz Singer

B. a single pianist

C. a gramophone

D. a small band

Question 10. The phrase "these signals" refers to.....................................

A: sounds

B. marks

C. series

D. sensors

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 11 to 17. 

The cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid removes minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth produce acid depends on the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of the plaque have been "primed" by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy, a regular dental hygiene program should be followed.

Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of bacteria in the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible, enabling saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in drinking water when teeth are forming, some fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant to attack by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way, by promoting the remineralization of early carious lesions.

In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep your teeth healthy is to reduce your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how much harmful acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your saliva. Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush and floss your teeth after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective.

Whenever possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc., that scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush. Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed when eating sweets.

(Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Deff and Ben Gok)

Question 11: What does this passage mainly discuss?

A. Good nutrition

B. Food with fiber

C. Ways to keep your teeth healthy

D. Fluoridization and cavities

Question 12: The word “it” refers to...................

A. dental floss

B. bacteria

C. removal of plaque

D. plaque

Question 13: According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true EXCEPT...................

A. It consists of acid producing bacteria

B. It is not affected by eating sweets

C. It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing

D. It reduces the positive effect of saliva

Question 14: We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is...................

A. It strengthens tooth enamel

B. It stimulates saliva production

C. It makes teeth whiter

D. It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care

Question 15: What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?

A. All sweets should be avoided.

B. Sweets should be eaten with care.

C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.

D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.

Question 16: The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your saliva increases...................

A. with the amount of sweets you eat

B. with the number of times you eat sweets

C. if you eat sweets with your meals

D. if you eat sticky sweets

Question 17: The word "scrape off" is closest in meaning to...................

A. repel

B. rub together with

C. remove

D. dissolve

ĐÁP ÁN

1.	A	2.	C	3.	C	4.	C	5.	C
6.	B	7.	D	8.	A	9.	A	10.	B
11.	C	12.	C	13.	B	14.	A	15.	B
16.	B	17.	C	18.	D	19.	C	20.	A
21.	D	22.	B	23.	A	24.	D	25.	A
26.	D	27.	C	28.	A	29.	C	30.	A
31.	B	32.	B	33.	C	34.	B	35.	A
36.	D	37.	A	38.	A	39.	A	40.	C
41.	C	42.	C	43.	D	44.	A	45.	D
46.	A	47.	A	48.	D	49.	C	50.	C

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