Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2021 Trường THCS Thụy Vân

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 NĂM 2021

TRƯỜNG THCS THỤY VÂN

PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

The Birthday Gift

It is going to be my father's birthday. What can I give him?

I don't have much money. I have looked all through the (1)..............................................., and I have not found anything that I think he would like, or that I can afford.

I have thought very (2)............................................... about what to buy for him. I thought that he might like some (3)..............................................., but my father really doesn't eat many sweets. I thought that he might like a new shirt, but he has lots of (4)................................................ I can't afford a new car or computer for him. I was (5)............................................... him on the weekend. He cut the grass, washed the car, took out the garbage, weeded the garden and (6)............................................... the plants.

I got an idea. I went to my room and took out some paper, I cut (7)............................................... pieces of paper, and I wrote on them. I wrote on one piece of paper that I would wash the car every weekend for the summer.

I wrote on another piece that I would (8)............................................... out the garbage every week for the summer. I (9)............................................... wrote that I would cut the grass, weed the garden and water the plants every week for the summer. I made a birthday (10)............................................... for my dad, and I put the pieces of paper inside it.

I went (11)............................................... and gave my gift to my dad. My dad thought that the (12)............................................... was very thoughtful. He said that it was a gift from the heart. I did all those things for my dad all summer. He said that he had a lot of free time because I (13)............................................... him so much.

My dad and I are good friends. I don't mind doing things for him because I know that he is always there to help me out.

A good gift doesn't have to be something that (14)............................................... a lot.

My dad says that the best gifts are the ones that (15)............................................... how much you care for the other person. I'm glad my dad liked his gift.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. durian   B. hurry           C. duty            D. computer

17. A. character           B. chemistry    C. scheme       D. chapter

18. A. wanted B. returned      C. worried       D. preferred

19. A. height   B. weight         C. eight           D. freight

20. A. serious B. sunbathe     C. sugar           D. symptom

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. harvest B. contain        C. flower         D. awful

22. A. explore B. cartoon       C. dislike         D. absence

23. A. comfortable      B. anniversary             C. education    D. information

24. A. decorate            B. equation      C. history        D. satellite

25. A. interview          B. regular        C. restaurant    D. selection

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. ……………..do your father play chess at the Chess Club, Lan? - Twice a week.

A. How much B. How long    C. How often D. How many

27. My little brother is used to ……………..late in the morning.

A. stay             B. to stay         C. staying        D. stayed

28. My cousin, Ly Hung, is ……………..student in our school.

A. more intelligent      B. the most intelligent C. intelligenter           D. intelligentest

29. The …………..always comes early, so my father gets his letters before he goes to work.

A. engineer     B. mailman     C. porter          D. chemist

30. My friends agreed to come to the festival ……………..from Thomas.

A. except         B. only            C. apart           D. accept

31. Don't forget ……………..your teeth before going to bed, little boys and girls!

A. to brush      B. brushing     C. about brushing        D. not to brush

32. I didn’t see the end of the movies last night because I ……………..asleep.

A. felt B. fell C. went            D. felled

33. We are rehearsing a play for our school anniversary ……………..

A. celebrate     B. celebrated   C. celebrating D. celebrations

34. I never play video games in my free time and..................................

A. so does Ha.             B. Ha doesn’t, too       C. Ha doesn’t, either   D. Neither doesn’t Ha

35. The letter is ………………..French but I can’t speak a word of French. Can you help me?

A. in    B. with            C. by   D. on

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. I like this kind of tree because it has a lot of green ............................. (LEAF)

37. Now, the students in my class are having a ............................. check-up. (MEDICINE)

38. Give me something to drink please! I’m dying of............................. (THIRSTY)

39. You shouldn’t eat ............................ food because it’s not good for your health. (HEALTH)

40. All of the us must remember to eat ............................. (SENSE)

41. Please help me with this sentence: “............................. is better than cure.” (PREVENT)

42. All the words in a dictionary are in ............................. order. (ALPHABET)

43. People of all............................. can join the walking activity. (ABLE)

44. The noise in the city kept Hoa ............................. at night last week. (WAKE)

45. Last Sunday, we went to the ............................. center. (AMUSE)

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. I’m very hungry, Mom. I think we should stop (have) ………………dinner.

47. I (phone) ………………my parents when I arrive in Da Lat this afternoon.

48. My father decided (not/ buy) ………………that new car.

49. The worker (break) ………………his leg yesterday?

50. Mommy! Could you tell me how (make) ………………a conical hat?

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

British parents are always complaining that (51)……….…… children spend too much time (52)………………TV and not enough time doing other activities like sports and reading. A (53)……….……survey of people’s free time activities (54)………………that young people spend about 23 hours a week in (55)……….……of the television set, that means over 3 hours a day

It is (56) ………………that the average adult watches even more: 28 hours a week. Every household in the county has a TV set and over half have two or more. According (57)……………… the survey people do not only watch TV in their living room, they watch it in the kitchen and in bed as (58) ……………….

We cannot deny that television also has some negative effects (59) ……….…… children, because many films shown on TV contain violence, crime and other bad things. Excessive watching of TV by children has lowered their results in (60) ……….……at school.

51. A. he         B. they             C. their            D. theirs

52. A. to watch            B. watch          C. watching     D. watched

53. A. late       B. lately           C. recent          D. recently

54. A. show     B. shows         C. showing      D. to show

55. A. between            B. behind         C. opposite      D. front

56. A. surprise             B. surprises     C. surprising   D. to surprise

57. A. to          B. in    C. from            D. at

58. A. well      B. good           C. happy          D. also

59. A. special B. specialise    C. especial       D. especially

60. A. learn     B. learned        C. learning      D. to learn

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 = 2.0pts)

Mark Twain is a famous American writer. His (61) .....………….…. was Samuel Longhorn Clemens and “Mark Twain” was (62) .....………….…. pen-name. Samuel Clemens was born in a small town (63) .....………….…. the Mississippi river in the USA. The boy (64) .....………….…. many friends at school and when he became a writer, he described them in his stories. (65).....………….….Samuel was twelve, his father died and the boy began to work and learned the (66).....………….…. of a painter. Samuel always (67).....………….…. to be a sailor and when he was twenty he found work on the river boat. After some time he (68).....………….…. the boat and went to live in California. Here he began to write short (69).....………….…. under the name of Mark Twain. He sent (70) .....………….….to newspapers. The readers liked his stories very much.

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

I get a lot of letters at this time of year from people complaining that they have a cold which won’t go away. There are so many different stories about how to prevent or cure a cold, it’s often difficult to know what to do. Although colds are rarely dangerous, except for

people who are already weak, such as the elderly or young babies, they are always uncomfortable and usually most unpleasant. Of course, when you have a cold, you often buy lots of medicines which help to make your cold less unpleasant, but you must remember that nothing can actually cure a cold or make it go away faster. Another thing is that any medicine which is strong enough to make you feel better could be dangerous if you are already taking drugs for some other illness so always check with your chemist or doctor to see whether they are all right for you. And remember they might make you sleepy – please don’t try to drive if they do! Lastly, as far as avoiding colds is concerned, whatever you may be told about magic foods or drinks, the best answer is to keep strong and healthy – you’ll have less chance of catching a cold, and if you do, it shouldn’t be so bad!

71. What should/ you/ do before/ buying/ medicine/ cold/ if/ already taking/ drugs/ ?/

……………………………………………………………………………………………?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

72. In/ what/ case/ colds/ dangerous/ ?/

……………………………………………………………………………………………?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

73. What/ people/ often/ do/ when/ have/ cold/ ?/

……………………………………………………………………………………………?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

74. What/ writer’s/ advice/ avoid/ colds?/

…………………………………………………………………………………………….?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

75. What/ this passage/ from/ ?/

…………………………………………………………………………………………….?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. For me - Going fishing is more interesting than reading books at home.

-> I prefer ………..……………………………………………………………………………..

77. My uncle is a slower and more careful driver than I am.

-> My uncle drives………………….………………………….………………………………

78. We didn’t enjoy the trip because of the heavy rain.

-> The heavy rain prevented…….………………………………………………………………

79. Life in the past is not as comfortable as life nowadays.

-> Life nowadays………………………………….………………………………………….

80. It took us about two hours to plant those trees yesterday.

-> We spent..............................................................................................................................

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. We/ going/ have/ two- week/ summer vacation/ Da Nang/ next month/ ./

-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….

82. You/ should/ eat/ variety/ food/ without/ eat/ too much/ anything/ ./

-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….

83. My mother/ worried/ about/ let/ me/ go/ zoo/ alone yesterday/ ./

-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….

84. Visitor/ spoke/ too quickly/ me/ understand/ what/ said/ ./

-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….

85. Miss Lan/ not/ go/ schoo/l last Monday/ because/ sickness/ ./

-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….

III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about your last holiday: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. stores 2. hard 3. candy 4. clothes 5. watching

6. watered 7. out 8. take 9. also 10. card

11. downstairs 12. gift 13. helped 14. costs 15. show

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2= 1.0 pt)

16. B. hurry 17. D. chapter 18. A. wanted 19. A. height 20. C. sugar

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. B. contain 22. D. absence 23. A. comfortable 24. B. equation 25. D. selection

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. C. How often 27. C. staying 28. B. the most intelligent 29. B. mailman 30. C. apart

31. A. to brush 32. B. fell 33. D. celebrations 34. C. Ha doesn’t, either 35. A. in

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. leaves 37. medical 38. thirst 39. unhealthy 40. sensibly

41. prevention 42. alphabetical 43. abilities 44. awake 45. amusement

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. to have 47. will phone 48. not to buy 49. Did...break 50. to make

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

51 - C. their 52- C. watching 53 - C. recent 54 - B. shows 55 - D. front

56 - C. surprising 57 - A. to 58 - A. well 59 - D. especially 60 - C. learning

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (100.2 =2.0pts)

61. name 62. his 63. on 64. had 65. when

66. job/ career/ profession 67. wanted/ wished 68. left 69. stories 70. them

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. What should you do before buying medicine for a cold if you are already taking drugs?

-> I/ We should talk to the chemist or doctor.

72. In what case are colds dangerous?

-> When the patients are weak, such as the elderly or young babies.

73. What do people often do when they have a cold?

-> They often buy lots of medicines which will help to make their cold less unpleasant.

74. What is the writer’s advice to avoid colds?

-> Keep strong and healthy.

75. What is this passage from?

-> It’s from a newspaper or a magazine.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. I prefer going fishing to reading books at home.

77. My uncle drives slowlier and more carefully than I do.

78. The heavy rain prevented us from enjoying the trip.

79. Life nowadays is more comfortable than life in the past.

80. We spent two hours planting those trees yesterday.

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (50.2=1.0 pt)

81. We are going to have a two- week summer vacation in Da Nang next month.

82. You should eat a variety of foods without eating too much of anything.

83. My mother was worried about letting me go to the zoo alone yesterday .

84. The visitor spoke too quickly for me to understand what he/she said.

85. Miss Lan didn’t go to school last Monday because of her sickness.

III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about your last holiday: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic. (0.5pt)

- The body: Write details about the holiday/ the sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0 pts)

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas, feeling or thoughts about the holiday.(0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

- Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

PART A: PHONETICS:

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (3 points)

1. A. watches B. misses         C. promises     D. houses

2 A. daily        B. maize          C. laid D. dairy

3. A. closed     B. stopped       C. promised     D. booked

II. Choose the words that has a stressed syllable from the others: (2 points)

1. A. happen    B. open            C. visit             D. advise

2. A. police     B. remember   C. hotel           D. lesson

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:

I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences.

(24 points)

1. The relationship between fast food and child obesity _______ very close indeed.

A. are B. is     C. to be            D. were

2. There are only two things that one should do _______ a healthy and fit body: eating sensibly and exercising well.

A. keeping       B. to keep        C. for keeping             D. keep

3. They are hanging their clothes to make them _______.

A. to dry          B. dried           C. dry D. drying

4. This dress is the _______ expensive of the four dresses.

A. most           B. more           C. much           D. best

5. Dairy products _______ butter, cheese and milk.

A. are including          B. included      C. includes      D. include

6. You shouldn’t eat too much sugar and don’t forget about exercise, _______.

A. too B. so    C. either          D. neither

7. Are there _______ for me this morning?

A. any letters   B. some letters            C. any letter    D. some letter

8.Solar energy _______ by many countries in the world in the future.

A. will be used            B. will use       C. will be using           D. use

9. He came into the room, _______ the light and _______ the door behind him.

A. turned on / closing             B. turning on / closing

C. turned on / closed               D. turning on / closed

10. What about _______ to Hue on Sunday?

A. to go           B. go   C. goes            D. going

11. This papaya is green. It is not __________.

A. small           B. yellow         C. good           D. ripe

12. I didn’t go to the cinema yesterday and Lan __________.

A. doesn’t, either        B. didn’t, neither         C. didn’t, either           D. wasn’t, either

13. Would you like to go to the movies tonight? - __________

A. Yes, I do     B. Yes, I would           C. Yes, I’d love to       D. Yes, please

14. Some people play video games at home. __________ play them in arcades.

A. Others         B. Other          C. Another      D. Each other

15. Hoa is reading short stories __________ Jack London.

A. of    B. from            C. by   D. with

16. She was __________ of watching television.

A. interested    B. tired            C. tiring           D. pleased

17. My new shoes don’t __________ me very well. They are too big.

A. suit B. match          C. fit    D. agree

18. Mary and I are looking forward __________ our old friend.

A. of seeing     B. for seeing    C. to see          D. to seeing

19. There are two churches in the town and __________ of them are extremely old.

A. both            B. each            C. all   D. most

20. I’m going to a wedding on Saturday. __________ is getting married.

A. A friend of me        B. A friend of mine     C. One my friend        D. A friend of I

21.I don’t like doing the _______, especially cleaning the windows.

A. homework B. housework C. job D. occupation

22. Nam and I are looking forward _______ you.

A.to seeing      B. of seeing     C. for seeing    D. to see

23. Mozart was one of the most famous _______ of classical music

A. actors          B. composers C. artists          D. makers

24. Airmail is much ......................than surface mail.

A. expensive   B. very expensive       C. more expensive      D. most expensive

II. Complete the dialogue with the correct tense of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)

1. I remember (meet)………………………… him somewhere.

2. You look tired. Sit down and I (make)…………………………. you a cup of tea.

3. I’m trying (finish) …………………my work. Please, stop (talk)………………………….

4. She paid for her ticket and (leave)………………………………………….

5. You look worried. What you (think) ………………………..about?

6. Everything (look)…………………………. strange to newcomers.

7. My friend asked me (not tell)………………………. to anyone about it.

8. After (leave)………………….. school, John (find)…………….. it very difficult to get a job.

III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (10 points)

1. He tried to learn Chinese but he was ___________. (SUCCESS)

2. He will never forget his happy ___________. (CHILD)

3. How is your grandfather? – He is much ___________ today. (WELL)

4. I watch TV every day because it is very ___________. (INFORM)

5. We must keep our environment ___________. (POLLUTE)

6. They cancelled all the ___________ because of the fog. (FLY)

7. I’m going to the shop for a rice ___________. What brand do you recommend? (COOK)

8. Every ___________ in my neighborhood has at least one TV set. (HOUSE)

9. I can do all of these exercises ___________. (EASY)

10. His ___________ of some words is not correct. (PRONOUNCE)

IV. Fill in each gap in the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (6 points)

1. I couldn’t meet Mary because she was ________.

2. It won’t be very long. I’ll be back ________ ten minutes.

3. Please, translate this article ________ English for me.

4. My brother is much better ________ gardening than me.

5. Sam Son beach is always crowded ________ tourists in the summer.

6. We look ____________________ the new words in the dictionary.

ĐÁP ÁN

PART A: PHONETICS:

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:

(3 points)

1. D 2. D 3. A

II. Choose the words that has a stressed syllable from the others: (2points)

1. D 2. D

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:

I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences: (24points)

1. B 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D

6. C 7. A 8. A 9. C 10. D

11. D 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. C

16. B 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. B

21. B 22. A 23. B. 24. C

II. Complete the dialogue with the correct tense of the verbs in brackets. (10points)

1. meeting 2. will make 3. to finish/talking 4. left 5. are…thinking

6. looks 7. not to tell 8. leaving/ found

III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (10points)

1. UNSUCCESSFUL 2. CHILHOOD 3. BETTER 4. INFORMATIVE

5. UNPOLLUTED 6. FLIGHTS 7. COOKER 8. HOUSEHOLD

9. EASILY 10. PRONUNCIATION

IV. Fill in each gap in the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5points)

1. out 2. in 3. into 4. at 5. with 6.up

PART C: READING:

I. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (5points)

1. was 2. about 3. has 4. best 5. life

II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill the blanks

(5 points).

1. A 3. B 5. D 7. A 9. A

2. B 4. C 6. B 8. D 10.B

III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each question below. (5points)

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B

PART D: WRITING:

I. Find a mistake and correct it (6.0points)

1. go => went

2. five – minutes => five – minute

3. to wake => wake

4. walking => walk

5. to watch => watching

II. Rewrite each of the following sentence, using the word given, keeping its meaning unchanged .(5.0 points)

1. ® We won’t hold the festival if it costs too much money.

2. ® Nam prefers playing football to going to the zoo.

3. ® The tortoise was running while the hare was sleeping.

4. ® Can the little boy take care of himself when his mother is away?

5. ® You don’t need to finish your assignment this evening.

III. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (5 points)

1. Our grandparents paid a visit to Ha Long Bay last summer.

2. Mr. Hoang spent half an hour walking to work yesterday.

3. It is not easy to find an apartment in a big city.

4. The bad weather prevented us from going to the beach.

5. We have a two-month vacation.

IV. Write a passage of about 120- 150 words on the following topic “Why should we learn English?” (10 points)

Marking criteria:

- Bài viết có bố cục 3 phần, nội dung tốt: 4.0 points

- Tính chính xác về ngữ pháp và từ vựng, chính tả: 4.0 points

- Tính liên kết giữa câu, đoạn: 2.0 point

PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts)

Schools

There are different (1)............................................... of schools.

There is an elementary school. The children at the elementary school are young. There is a (2)............................................... for them to play in. The classrooms are bright and airy.

There are blackboards in the classrooms. The children sit in desks to do their work.

There is a (3)............................................... lot for the teachers to park in.

There is a (4)............................................... for the students to get food.

The principal has an office. Nobody wants to go to the principal's (5)................................................

It usually means that you are in trouble if you have to go to the principal's office.

When you (6)............................................... elementary school, you go to high school. Most of the students in high school are (7)................................................ There is a parking lot outside the high school. There is also a football field outside. The students go to classes in different classrooms. They move from classroom to classroom for (8)............................................... subject. There is a cafeteria where they can get their (9)............................................... or eat the lunches that they have brought from home.

There is a gymnasium (10)............................................... students have physical education. Dances are also held in the gymnasium.

Some students go on to university (11)............................................... high school. Students at the university are older.

Some of the students are even senior citizens.

People come from all over the (12)............................................... to attend the university.

There are lots of different things at the university.

There is a (13)............................................... where plays and concerts are held, there is a bookstore where students can buy their textbooks, there is a physical education (14)............................................... that has a swimming pool in it. The parking lot at the university is very big.

They call the (15)............................................... that the university is on a campus.

Some of the students live on campus in residences.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. tables    B. brushes       C. watches      D. glasses

17. A. coach    B. armchair     C. Christmas   D. children

18. A. arrived B. laughed       C. looked         D. watched

19. A. nervous             B. scout           C. household   D. mouse

20. A. together            B. teenager      C. grow           D. regular

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. receive B. number       C. disease        D. decide

22. A. vacation            B. tomato        C. material      D. surgery

23. A. writer    B. soccer         C. prefer          D. chopstick

24. A. restaurant         B. general        C. satellite       D. arrival

25. A. delicious           B. journalist    C. favorite       D. chemistry

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. When my brother was a boy, he ............................................ games to lessons.

A. prefer          B. preferring   C. prefers        D. preferred

27. Mrs. Hanh prefers clothes made ............................................ silk ............................................ those of cotton.

A. of/ to           B. from/ than   C. in/ to           D. from/ more

28. Does it take Mr. Hoang 20 minutes............................................ to his office by motorbike?

A. go   B. to go           C. going          D. went

29. We don't have anything to do now. Shall we go to our club? - ............................................

A. Yes, let’s    B. Yes, we should       C. Yes, we go D. Yes, I shall

30. You looked very ............................................ this morning. What was the problem?

A. unhappy     B. unhappily   C. to be unhappy         D. being unhappy

31. Don't let your brother play video games so often because it can make him.............................................

A. addictive    B. wonderful   C. interesting   D. beautiful

32. My mother told me that: "Being a girl, you ought to learn .......................................... to cook meals."

A. how            B. when           C. what            D. where

33. Ba: "I didn't go to school late this morning." Hoan: " ............................................ "

A. So did I       B. I didn't, too             C. Neither did I           D. Either didn't I

34. – "............................................... do you play badminton?” - “Every afternoon.”

A. Why           B. When          C. How long    D. How often

35. My father is very.......................................... in watching news on TV.

A. interest       B. interested    C. interesting   D. to interest

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. John is riding his motorbike so .......................... that he is sure to have an accident. CARE

37. Hoang 's parents sometimes punished him for his .......................... LAZY

38. Ha's mother is a teacher of physical .......................... in my school. EDUCATE

39. Miss Lien sings the most.......................... in our town. BEAUTY

40. My Linh is a very pleasant girl, but her friend is a little .......................... FRIEND

41. The twins aren't the same. They always do things.......................... DIFFER

42. It is......................... to advise Mr. Thinh. He never takes anyone’s advice. USE

43. My teacher of Maths has a .......................... computer. PORT

44. Miss Anh is a .......................... She sells so many flowers in Ha Noi. FLOWER

45. One of the most popular.......................... at recess in the USA is talking. ACT

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. types 2. playground 3. parking 4. cafeteria 5. office

6. finish 7. teenagers 8. each 9. lunches 10. where

11. from 12. world 13. theater 14. building 15. land

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. tables 17. C. Christmas 18. A. arrived 19. A. nervous 20. B. teenager

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. B. number 22. D. surgery 23. C. prefer 24. D. arrival 25. A. delicious

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D. preferred 27. A. of/ to 28. B. to go 29. A. Yes, let’s 30. A. unhappy

31. A. addictive 32. A. how 33. C. Neither did I 34. C. How often 35. B. interested

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. carelessly 37. laziness 38. education 39. beautifully 40. unfriendly

41. differently 42. unuseful/ useless 43. portable 44. florist 45. activities

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. breaking 47. to use 48. Take 49. Will ….be 50. playing

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (100.2 = 2.0 pts)

51. A. was 52. C. of 53. B. leaving 54. A. wrote 55. D. much

56. C. made 57. A. lived 58. C. the 59. B. However 60. D. most

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (100.2 =2.0pts)

61. name 62. have 63. in 64. to 65. reading

66. who 67. of 68. the 69. countries 70. of

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. How many days a week does the North London Arts Cinema open?

-> It opens 7 days a week.

72. What is the title of film next week?

-> It is “Midnight Meeting”

73. How long does the film last?

-> It lasts two hours and fifteen minutes.

74. What does a student have to do if he wants the cheaper ticket?

-> He has to bring his student card.

75. How far is it from the nearest car park to the cinema?

-> It is just five – minute walk.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Did it take your father the whole morning to repair his car?

77. You had better not stay up too late. It's not good for your health.

78. Our newcomer were absent from our club last weekend.

79. The driving test was not so/ as difficult as my brother thought.

80. It is very difficult for me to learn Chinese.

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (50.2=1.0 pt)

81. The monitor always goes to class on time to be a good example for the class.

82. Lan went to the doctor yesterday because she had an awful stomachache.

83. Now, my parents are pleased with the improvement in my work.

84. Minh was absent from school last Monday because he was ill.

85. Did it take Hoa twenty minutes to walk to school yesterday?

III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about the person you love most of all: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “Who he/she love most; …”. (0.5pt)

- The body: Write that person's relation; his/her appearance/ characteristics/ good points/ the sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0 pts)

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas, feeling or thoughts about the person he/she loves (s). (0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

- Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

PART A: PHONETICS:

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (3 points)

1. A. dances    B. misses         C. promises     D. houses

2 A. see           B. free C. agree           D. coffee

3. A. naked      B. looked         C. promised     D. booked

II. Choose the words that has a stressed syllable from the others: (2 points)

1. A. concert   B. teenager      C. comfortable            D. cartoon

2. A. hotel       B. remember   C. repeat          D. classroom

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:

I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. (24 points)

1. They’ve got….………….…books than me.

A. fewer          B. less C. much           D. many

2. Does she want......................... her grandparents at weekends?

A. visit            B. visits           C. visiting       D. to visit.

3. Students live and study in a/an………..….…school. They only go home at weekends.

A. international           B. small           C. boarding     D. overseas

4. Of my parents, my father is……………….one.

A. the stronger            B. the strongest           C. strong         D. stronger

5. This painting is prettier, but it costs ………….the other one.

A.so much as B. as many as C. twice as much as    D. twice as many

6.” …………..….a nice T-shirt, Trang!” - “Thank you”

A. How           B. What           C. Which         D. It

7. I’m always nervous when I’m …………..an exam.

A. taking         B. making       C. working      D. writing

8. My mother has been busy …………..all afternoon.

A. cook           B. cooking       C. to cook        D. cooked

9. “Thank a lot for the lovely dinner” “___________”

A. You’re welcome    B. It’s all right             C. Thank you too        D. Please don’t say so

10. Some young people work......................hospital volunteers.

A. as    B. too C. so    D. same

11. Were you absent…………….school yesterday?

A. at    B. to    C. from            D. in

12. In the evening, all the family members………………in the living room to watch TV.

A. spend          B. come           C. gather         D. stand

13. There’s one satellite TV………that shows only films.

A. station         B. house          C. game           D. program

14. Some people are used to .................in crowded buses and don't mind it at all.

A. riding          B. ride C. rode            D. to ride

15. You should not ride so…………………. . You may have an accident.

A. careless       B. carelessly    C. carefully     D. careful

16.It is dangerous………………….. in the polluted environment.

A. to live         B. lives            C. living          D. live

17. The girl was crying when a fairy …………….

A. appeared     B. was appearing        C. appears       D. is appearing

18. She is ……………… a singer nor an actress.

A. neither        B. either          C. nor D. both

19.The children are playing ………………… in the schoolyard.

A. happy         B. happily       C. happier       D. happiness

20. Everyone must remember………………… lies.

A. don’t tell     B. not tell        C. to tell not    D. not to tell

ĐÁP ÁN

PART A: PHONETICS:

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:

(3 points)

1. D 2. D 3. A

II. Choose the words that has a stressed syllable from the others: (2points)

1. D 2. D

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:

I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences: (24points)

1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. A

10. A 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. B 16.A 17.A 18.A

19.B 20.D 21.B 22.A 23.B. 24.C

II. Complete the dialogue with the correct tense of the verbs in brackets .(10points)

1. meeting

2. cooking

3. saw

4. is becoming

5. cry

6. read / was

7.are going to see / Will you join

8. lived.

III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (10points)

1.household

2. friendly

3. Sensibly

4. furnished

5. hopeless

6. juicy

7. friendship

8. height

9. carelessly

10. amazing

IV. Fill in each gap in the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5points)

1. at 2. up 3. about 4. up 5. at 6. up

PART C: READING:

I. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (5points)

1. family 2. good 3. when 4. yourself 5. make

II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill the blanks (5 points).

1. A. full 3. B. and 5. C. of 7. A. of 9. A. leisurely

2. A. traffic 4. B. begins 6. A. interest 8. B lights 10. A. spend

III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each question below. (5points)

1. C 2.B 3.C 4.A 5.D

PART D: WRITING:

I. Find a mistake and correct it (6.0points)

1. in - 0

2. was - were

3. serious - seriously

4. thousand - thousands

5. where - how

II. Rewrite each of the following sentence, using the word given, keeping its meaning unchanged .(5.0 points)

1. Charles lives quite near his aunt’s house. DOESN’T

® Charles doesn’t live far from his aunt’s house

2. If you don’t study hard, you will fail the exam UNLESS

® Unless you study hard, you will fail the exam.

3.The tortoise was running. The hare was sleeping. WHILE

®. The tortoise was running while The hare was sleeping.

4. Can the little boy look after himself when his mother is away? TAKE

® Can the little boy take care of himself when his mother is away?

5. It is not necessary for you to finish your assignment this evening. NEED

® You don’t need to finish your assignment this evening.

III. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. .(5 points)

1. It took Nam two hours to repaint his house.

2. Lien isn’t very interested in doing sport

3. What a beautiful painting !

4. I don’t work as hard as my sister

5. Both I and my sister were late for school this morning

IV. Write a short paragraph (100 – 120 words) about one of the subjects at school that you like best .( 10 point)

PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts)

Vacation

My family and I went on vacation to Lake Huron - The water is beautiful and (1)…………….. there, and the sand is nice and white.

The week that we were there was very hot, the sun was hot, but the water was still very cold. I went swimming and (2)……….…….. to catch little fish in my hands, I was careful not to get sunburned. We stayed at a (3)……….…….. that had a pool and a game room, I played pinball and video games sometimes. I liked to swim in the hotel (4)…….……….., but I liked the beach better. I would lie on a big (5)………….….. towel and get warm; then I would jump in the water and cool off.

Sometimes I would just lie on the sand and watch the waves roll up on the (6)….…………...

I found some seashells, and I saw a (7)……….…….. walking on the sand.

At first I was a bit lonely because I didn't know anyone there. It wasn't long before I met some other (8)……….…….. at my age. We built sandcastles together and swam in the lake. The other kids were from different (9)……….…….., so we told each other stories about our schools and friends. We found that we had a lot in (10)…….……….. even though we were from different places.

Our families got together and went to (11)…….……….. together. We played volleyball on the beach, and we sat around a campfire at night and sang songs.

At the (12)………….….. we would roast marshmallows on a stick. I always (13)………….….. my marshmallows. That is okay. I like them that way.

Mostly we just swam in the lake until we were very tired. I was (14)…….……….. when our vacation was over. I had a good time at Lake Huron, I met some very good friends there.

We still write to each other. (15)……….…….. we'll see each other next summer.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. returned            B. divided       C. mentioned D. improved

17. A. young   B. enough        C. souvenir      D. encourage

18. A. gather   B. healthy        C. those           D. southern

19. A. school   B. chapter        C. character     D. orchestra

20. A. seashore           D. bookstore   C. sew D. opposite

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. disease B. awful          C. receive        D. decide

22. A. symptom          B. surgery       C. horrible       D. material

23. A. stomachache     B. direction     C. compliment            D. moderate

24. A. calendar            B. expensive   C. vacation      D. appointment

25. A. delicious           B. suitable       C. beautiful     D. horrible

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING

Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. blue 2. tried 3. hotel 4. pool 5. beach

6. shore 7. crab 8. kids 9. towns 10. common

11. restaurants 12. campfire 13. burn 14. sorry 15. Maybe

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt)

16 - B. divided 17- C. souvenir 18- B. healthy 19- B. chapter 20- D. opposite

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. B. awful 22. D. material 23. B. direction 24. A. calendar 25. A. delicious

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D. a noun 27. B. more intelligently 28. B. find 29. C. the taller 30. D. Yes, let’s

31. C. doing our homework 32. D. themselves 33. A. happy 34. C. much 35. B. told

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (100.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. unpleasant 37. unpopular 38. hairdresser 39. famous 40. disappear

41. sensibly 42. employees 43. inexpensive 44. fluently 45. pianist

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. wrote 47. called 48. watches 49. is having 50. is going to be

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (100.2 = 2.0 pts)

51. B. complaining 52. C. watching 53. A. recent 54. D. shows 55. B. front

56. A. a day 57. C. Surprisingly 58. D. According 59. C. has 60. B. their

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (100.2 =2.0 pts)

61. more 62. one 63. for 64. the 65. but

66. felt 67. course 68. bit/ little 69. time/season 70. much

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. What games do many of us play?

Many of us play such games as volleyball or football, basketball or tennis.

72. Who are called partners?

Two people playing with each other are partners.

73. What do players try to do in a football match?

They try to score as many goals as they can.

74. Can we take part in all kinds of sports?

Yes, we can (take part in all kinds of sports).

75. Are you interested in sports? What sports are you fond of?

(Yes, I am. I’m fond of …./ No, I’m not).

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Thuy Linh never went went to Da Lat without buying a lot of flowers.

77. Neither of the chairs are comfortable.

78. My teacher of Literature spends about fifteen minutes walking to school every day.

79. Because of Mr. John’s injured leg, he walked very slowly .

80. My cousin, Nam, is a skillful soccer player.

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Bill Gates was born in 1955 in Washington State. He grew up in a rich family.

By 1997, he was the richest man in the United States.

82. Traveling by train is much slower but it's more interesting than traveling by plane.

83. My dad has a lot of beautiful carved eggs, but he never sells any of them.

84. You can take university courses at home with the help of video cassette recorders.

85. Learning English well is very important for all of us to get a good job in the future.

III. Write an essay (about 150 words) about your last vacation: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “Where he/she went…”. (0.5pt)

- The body: Write about: Where he/she went to; Who to go with; the activities; the sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0 pts)

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas or what they thought about the vacation (s).

(0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

- Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

  ---

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