Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2021 Trường THCS Nguyễn Trãi

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 NĂM 2021

TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI

PART ONE: LISTENING            Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Vacation

My family and I went on vacation to Lake Huron - The water is beautiful and (1)…………….. there, and the sand is nice and white.

The week that we were there was very hot, the sun was hot, but the water was still very cold. I went swimming and (2)……….…….. to catch little fish in my hands, I was careful not to get sunburned. We stayed at a (3)……….…….. that had a pool and a game room, I played pinball and video games sometimes. I liked to swim in the hotel (4)…….……….., but I liked the beach better. I would lie on a big (5)………….….. towel and get warm; then I would jump in the water and cool off.

Sometimes I would just lie on the sand and watch the waves roll up on the (6)….…………...

I found some seashells, and I saw a (7)……….…….. walking on the sand.

At first I was a bit lonely because I didn't know anyone there. It wasn't long before I met some other (8)……….…….. at my age. We built sandcastles together and swam in the lake. The other kids were from different (9)……….…….., so we told each other stories about our schools and friends. We found that we had a lot in (10)…….……….. even though we were from different places.

Our families got together and went to (11)…….……….. together. We played volleyball on the beach, and we sat around a campfire at night and sang songs.

At the (12)………….….. we would roast marshmallows on a stick. I always (13)………….….. my marshmallows. That is okay. I like them that way.

Mostly we just swam in the lake until we were very tired. I was (14)…….……….. when our vacation was over. I had a good time at Lake Huron, I met some very good friends there.

We still write to each other. (15)……….……..  we'll see each other next summer.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. returned	B. divided	C. mentioned	D. improved
17. A. young	B. enough	C. souvenir	D. encourage
18. A.  gather	B. healthy	C. those	D. southern
19. A.  school	B. chapter	C. character	D. orchestra
20. A. seashore	D. bookstore	C. sew	D. opposite

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. disease	B. awful	C. receive	D. decide
22. A. symptom	B. surgery	C.  horrible	D. material
23. A. stomachache	B. direction	C. compliment	D. moderate
24. A. calendar	B. expensive	C. vacation	D. appointment
25. A. delicious	B. suitable	C. beautiful	D. horrible

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26.  The word “cook” in the sentence “My mother is a good cook” is …………….……

A.  a verb

B. an adverb

C. an adjective

D. a noun

27. Linda answered these questions …………….……than her friend, Sarah.

A. intelligent

B. more intelligently

C. most intelligent

D. more intelligent

28. We…………….…playing soccer interesting because we can play them with our friends.

A. think

B. find

C. tell

D. say

29. Of the two students over there, my younger brother is …………….……

A. tall

B. taller

C. the taller

D. the tallest

30. We are free now. Shall we go to our club’s party?   - …………….……

A. Yes, I shall

B. Yes, we should

C. Yes, we go

D. Yes, let’s

31. My brother and I usually spends about two hours ……………………in the evening.

A. do our homework	B. to do our homework
C. doing our homework	D. to doing our homework

32. The boys hurt …………….……when they climbed down the tree.

A. one another

B. each other

C. himself

D. themselves

33. When I saw your mother this morning, I thought she looked …………….……

A. happy

B. happily

C. to be happy

D. very happily

34. The books here are …………….……more expensive than those at the shop on the corner.

A. very

B. quite

C. much

D. many

35. Who ……………………you to come and see me, Linh?   - My father did.

A. spoke

B. told

C. said

D. tells

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. Catching the common cold is very ……………..……to everybody.                    PLEASE        

37. Basketball is a/an  ...............................after school activity in Viet Nam. Not many people play this sport.       POPULARITY

38. Trung’s uncle is a .............................. His job is to cut, wash and shape hair. HAIR

39. The teacher says, “Huy, you will be a ...............................artist one day”.           FAME

40. Ha says my cold will last for a few days and it will...............................                APPEAR

41. All of us must remember to eat ………………...     SENSE

42. There are over 200 ………….in my uncle’s company.                                           EMPLOY

43. Nowadays, walking is a fun, easy and ..............................activity for us. EXPENSIVE

44. My uncle, Mr. Long, can speak English ...............................                                    FLUENCY

45. Lan’s brother is a ................................ and he plays it very well.               PIANO

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

A few weeks ago, Mandy Poole (46. write) .................................... to Sunshine television. She wanted to be on their breakfast time quize show, (47. call) .................................... “Lucky Break”. Mandy loves the show and she (48. watch) .................................... the show every day. She is watching the show at the moment, while she (49. have) .................................... her breakfast. She (50. be) .................................... very surprised soon, because the show’s presenter, Russell Dean, has chosen her name and he is going to call her up.

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2  = 2.0 pts)

British parents are always (51) ...………….….that their children spend too much time (52) .....………….TV and not enough time doing other activities like sports and reading. A (53) .....…….….survey of people’s free time activities (54) ....……….….that young people spend about 23 hours a week in (55) .....…….….of the television set, that means over 3 hours (56) .....…….…..  (57) .....…….…., the average adult watches even more: 28 hours a week. Every household in the country has a TV set and over half have two or more. (58)....…………….to the survey, people do not only sit in their living room watching TV but also watch it in the kitchen and in bed as well.

We can not deny that television also (59)....………….….some negative effects especially children, because many films shown on TV contain violence, crime and other bad things. Excessive watching of TV by children has lowered (60).....……….….results in studying at school.

51.	A.	complain	B.	complaining	C.	complains	D.	complained
52.	A.	to watch	B.	watch	C.	watching	D.	watched
53.	A.	recent	B.	recently	C.	late	D.	lately
54.	A.	show	B.	to show	C.	showing	D.	shows
55.	A.	back	B.	front	C.	side	D.	behind
56.	A.	a day	B.	a week	C.	a month	D.	a year
57.	A.	Surprise	B.	Surprised	C.	Surprisingly	D.	To surprise
58.	A.	Because	B.	Addition	C.	Besides	D.	According
59.	A.	have	B.	having	C.	has	D.	had
60.	A.	its	B.	their	C.	his	D.	her

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0pts)

Do want to be fitter and healthier? Would you like to look younger? Do you want to feel  (61).....………….….relaxed? Then try a few days at a health farm. Health farms are becoming  (62).....………….….of the most popular places  (63).....………….….a short break. I went to Henley Manor for a weekend. It’s  (64).....………….….largest health farm in the country  (65).....………….….it isn’t the most expensive. After two days of  exercise I  (66).....………….….ten times better. But the best thing for me was the food. It was all very healthy, of  (67).....………….….but it was excellent, too!          

If you’re looking for something a  (68).....………….….cheaper, try a winter break.

Winter is the darkest and the coldest (69).....………….….of the year, and it can also be the worst time for your body. We all eat too (70).....………….….and we don’t take enough exercise. A lot of health farm offer lower prices Monday to Friday from November to March.

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

We are students and we are sure that you are interested in sports. Many of you certainly play such games as volleyball or football, basketball or tennis. People who play a game are players. Players forms teams and play matches against each other teams – their opponents. Two people playing with each other are partners. Each team can lose or win. In a football match, players try to score as many goals as they can.

There are so many kinds of sports such as cycling, boxing, swimming, gymnastics, rowing and many more. You can take an active part in all of them or you can just be a devoted fan. Eveybody may choose the sport he is fond of or interested in.

71. What games/ many/ us/ play?

   -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

72. Who/ be called/ partners?

   -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

73. What/ players/ try/ do/ football match?

   -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

74. We/ take part/ all kinds/ sports?

   -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

75. you/ be interested/ sports? What/ sports/ you/ be fond of?

   -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Whenever Thuy Linh went to Da Lat, she bought a lot of flowers.

-> Thuy Linh never went ………………………………….……………………….

77. Both of the chairs are uncomfortable.

-> Neither of………………………………………………………………………..

78. It takes my teacher of Literature about fifteen minutes to walk to school to every day.                    

-> My teacher of Literature spends………………………………….………………

79. Mr. John walked very slowly because his leg was injured.

-> Because of………………………………….……………….……………………

80. My cousin, Nam, plays soccer skillfully.

-> My cousin, Nam is ……………………………………………………………………

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Bill Gates was born/ 1955/ Washington State . He/ grow up/ rich family. By 1997, he/ the richest/ man/ United States.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

82. Traveling/ train/ much/ slower/ but/ interesting/ than/ traveling/ plane.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

83. My dad/ have/ lot/ beautiful/ carved eggs/ but/ never/ sell/ any/ them.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

84. You/ can take/ university courses/ home/ with/ help/ video cassette recorders.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

85. Learn/ English/ well/ very important/ all of us/ get/ good job/ future.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

III. Write an essay (about 150 words) about your last vacation: (3.0 pts)

 (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING  Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. blue	2. tried	3. hotel	4. pool	5. beach
6. shore	7. crab	8. kids	9. towns	10. common
11. restaurants	12. campfire	13. burn	14. sorry	15. Maybe

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16 - B. divided

17- C. souvenir

18- B. healthy

19- B. chapter

20- D. opposite

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. B. awful

22. D. material

23. B. direction

24. A. calendar

25. A. delicious

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D. a noun	27. B. more intelligently	28. B. find	29. C. the taller	30. D. Yes, let’s
31. C. doing our homework	32. D. themselves	33. A. happy	34. C. much	35. B. told

36. unpleasant	37. unpopular	38. hairdresser	39. famous	40. disappear
41. sensibly	42. employees	43. inexpensive	44. fluently	45. pianist

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. wrote

47. called

48. watches

49. is having

50. is going to be

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2  = 2.0 pts)

51. B. complaining	52. C. watching	53. A. recent	54. D. shows	55. B. front
56. A. a day	57. C. Surprisingly	58. D. According	59. C. has	60. B. their

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

61. more	62. one	63. for	64. the	65. but
66. felt	67. course	68. bit/ little	69. time/season	70. much

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. What games do many of us play?

     Many of us play such games as volleyball or football, basketball or tennis.

72. Who are called partners?

     Two people playing with each other are partners.

73. What do players try to do in a football match?

     They try to score as many goals as they can.

74. Can we take part in all kinds of sports?

     Yes, we can (take part in all kinds of sports).

75. Are you interested in sports? What sports are you fond of?

     (Yes, I am. I’m fond of …./ No, I’m not).

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Thuy Linh never went went to Da Lat without buying a lot of flowers.

77. Neither of  the chairs are comfortable.

78. My teacher of Literature spends about fifteen minutes walking to school every day.

79. Because of Mr. John’s injured leg, he walked very slowly .

80. My cousin, Nam, is a skillful soccer player.

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Bill Gates was born in 1955 in Washington State. He grew up in a rich family.

      By  1997, he was the richest man in the United States.

82. Traveling by train is much slower but it's more interesting than traveling by plane.

83. My dad has a lot of beautiful carved eggs, but he never sells any of them.

84. You can take university courses at home with the help of video cassette recorders.

85. Learning English well is very important for all of us to get a good job in the future.

III. Write an essay (about 150 words) about your last vacation: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

  - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “Where he/she went…”.                                                                                                                          (0.5pt)

  - The body: Write about: Where he/she went to; Who to go with; the activities; the sentences must have connectors and link words...                    (2,0 pts)

  - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas or what they thought about the vacation (s).                                                               (0.5 pt)

PART ONE: LISTENING       Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Schools

There are different (1)............................................... of schools. 

There is an elementary school. The children at the elementary school are young. There is a (2)............................................... for them to play in. The classrooms are bright and airy. 

There are blackboards in the classrooms. The children sit in desks to do their work. 

There is a (3)............................................... lot for the teachers to park in. 

There is a (4)............................................... for the students to get food. 

The principal has an office. Nobody wants to go to the principal's (5)................................................ 

It usually means that you are in trouble if you have to go to the principal's office. 

When you (6)............................................... elementary school, you go to high school. Most of the students in high school are (7)................................................ There is a parking lot outside the high school. There is also a football field outside. The students go to classes in different classrooms. They move from classroom to classroom for (8)............................................... subject. There is a cafeteria where they can get their (9)............................................... or eat the lunches that they have brought from home. 

There is a gymnasium (10)............................................... students have physical education.  Dances are also held in the gymnasium. 

Some students go on to university (11)............................................... high school. Students at the university are older. 

Some of the students are even senior citizens. 

People come from all over the (12)............................................... to attend the university. 

There are lots of different things at the university. 

There is a (13)............................................... where plays and concerts are held, there is a bookstore where students can buy their textbooks, there is a physical education (14)............................................... that has a swimming pool in it. The parking lot at the university is very big. 

They call the (15)............................................... that the university is on a campus. 

Some of the students live on campus in residences.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. tables              B. brushes                  C. watches                 D. glasses

17. A. coach              B. armchair               C. Christmas D. children

18. A. arrived            B. laughed                 C. looked                   D. watched

19. A. nervous          B. scout                      C. household D. mouse               

20. A. together          B. teenager                C. grow                      D. regular

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. receive           B. number                  C. disease                  D. decide

22. A. vacation         B. tomato                   C. material                 D. surgery

23. A. writer              B. soccer                    C. prefer                    D. chopstick

24. A. restaurant       B. general                 C. satellite                 D. arrival

25. A. delicious        B. journalist              C. favorite                 D. chemistry

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26 . When my brother was a boy, he ............................................ games to lessons.

A. prefer                    B. preferring            C. prefers                   D. preferred

27. Mrs. Hanh prefers clothes made ............................................ silk ............................................ those of cotton.

A. of/ to                     B. from/ than             C. in/ to                      D. from/ more

28. Does it take Mr. Hoang 20 minutes............................................ to his office by motorbike?

A. go                          B. to go                                  C. going                     D. went

29. We don't have anything to do now. Shall we go to our club?   - ............................................

A. Yes, let’s              B. Yes, we should                C. Yes, we go            D. Yes, I shall

30. You looked very ............................................ this morning. What was the problem?

A. unhappy               B. unhappily             C. to be unhappy      D. being unhappy

31. Don't let your brother play video  games so often because it can make him.............................................

A. addictive               B. wonderful                         C. interesting            D. beautiful

32. My mother told me that: "Being a girl, you ought to learn .......................................... to cook meals."

A. how                       B. when                                  C. what                       D. where

33. Ba: "I didn't go to school late this morning." Hoan: " ............................................ "

A. So did I     B. I didn't, too           C. Neither did I         D. Either didn't I

34. – "...............................................  do you play badminton?”           - “Every afternoon.”

A. Why                      B. When                                 C. How long              D. How often

35. My father is very.......................................... in watching news on TV.

A. interest                  B. interested                          C. interesting D. to interest

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. John is riding his motorbike so ..........................  that he is sure to have an accident. CARE

37. Hoang 's parents sometimes punished him for his ..........................                       LAZY

38. Ha's mother is a teacher of physical ..........................  in my school.                     EDUCATE

39. Miss Lien sings the most..........................  in our town.                                           BEAUTY

40. My Linh is a very pleasant girl, but her friend is a little ..........................             FRIEND

41. The twins aren't the same. They always do things..........................                        DIFFER

42. It is......................... to advise Mr. Thinh. He never takes anyone’s advice. USE

43. My teacher of Maths has a ..........................  computer.                                          PORT

44. Miss Anh is a  ..........................  She sells so many flowers in Ha Noi.     FLOWER

45. One of the most popular..........................  at recess in the USA is talking.            ACT

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING            Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. types	2. playground	3. parking	4. cafeteria	5. office
6. finish	7. teenagers	8. each	9. lunches	10. where
11. from	12. world	13. theater	14. building	15. land

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. tables

17. C. Christmas

18. A. arrived

19. A. nervous

20. B. teenager

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. B. number

22. D. surgery

23. C. prefer

24. D. arrival

25. A. delicious

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D. preferred	27. A. of/ to	28. B. to go	29. A. Yes, let’s	30. A. unhappy
31. A. addictive	32. A. how	33. C. Neither did I	34. C. How often	35. B. interested

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. carelessly	37. laziness	38. education	39. beautifully	40. unfriendly
41. differently	42. unuseful/         useless	43. portable	44. florist	45. activities

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. breaking

47. to use

48. Take

49. Will ….be

50. playing

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2  = 2.0 pts)

51. A. was	52. C. of	53. B. leaving	54. A. wrote	55. D. much
56. C. made	57. A. lived	58. C. the	59. B. However	60. D. most

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0pts)

61. name	62. have	63. in	64. to	65. reading
66. who	67. of	68. the	69. countries	70. of

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

  71. How many days a week does the North London Arts Cinema open?

-> It opens 7 days a week.

  72. What is the title of film next week?

-> It is “Midnight Meeting”

  73. How long does the film last?

-> It lasts two hours and fifteen minutes.

  74. What does a student have to do if he wants the cheaper ticket?

-> He has to bring his student card.

  75. How far is it from the nearest car park to the cinema?

-> It is just  five – minute walk.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

  76. Did it take your father the whole morning to repair his car?

  77. You had better not stay up too late. It's not good for your health.

  78. Our newcomer were absent from our club last weekend.

  79. The driving test was not so/ as difficult as my brother thought.

  80. It is very difficult for me to learn Chinese.

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

  81. The monitor always goes to class on time to be a good example for the class.

  82. Lan went to the doctor yesterday because she had an awful stomachache.

  83. Now, my parents are pleased with the improvement in my work.

  84. Minh was absent from school last Monday because he was ill.

  85. Did it take Hoa twenty minutes to walk to school yesterday?

III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about the person you love most of all: (3.0 pts)

 (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

  - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “Who he/she love most; …”.                                                                                                                       (0.5pt)

  - The body: Write that person's relation; his/her appearance/ characteristics/ good points/ the sentences must have connectors and link words...                                                         (2,0 pts)

  - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas, feeling or thoughts about the person he/she loves (s).                                                                                                                          (0.5 pt)

     * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

                        - Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more).

                        - Correct vocabulary and structures.

                        - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/  ...).

PART ONE: LISTENING       Listen and fill in the gaps: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

The Birthday Gift

It is going to be my father's birthday. What can I give him? 

I don't have much money. I have looked all through the (1)..............................................., and I have not found anything that I think he would like, or that I can afford. 

I have thought very (2)............................................... about what to buy for him. I thought that he might like some (3)..............................................., but my father really doesn't eat many sweets. I thought that he might like a new shirt, but he has lots of (4)................................................ I can't afford a new car or computer for him. I was (5)............................................... him on the weekend. He cut the grass, washed the car, took out the garbage, weeded the garden and (6)............................................... the plants. 

I got an idea. I went to my room and took out some paper, I cut (7)............................................... pieces of paper, and I wrote on them. I wrote on one piece of paper that I would wash the car every weekend for the summer. 

I wrote on another piece that I would (8)............................................... out the garbage every week for the summer. I (9)............................................... wrote that I would cut the grass, weed the garden and water the plants every week for the summer. I made a birthday (10)............................................... for my dad, and I put the pieces of paper inside it.

I went (11)............................................... and gave my gift to my dad. My dad thought that the (12)............................................... was very thoughtful. He said that it was a gift from the heart. I did all those things for my dad all summer. He said that he had a lot of free time because I (13)............................................... him so much. 

My dad and I are good friends. I don't mind doing things for him because I know that he is always there to help me out. 

A good gift doesn't have to be something that (14)............................................... a lot. 

My dad says that the best gifts are the ones that (15)............................................... how much you care for the other person. I'm glad my dad liked his gift.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. durian             B. hurry                     C. duty                       D. computer

17. A. character        B. chemistry              C. scheme                  D. chapter

18. A. wanted            B. returned                C. worried                 D. preferred         

19. A. height             B. weight                   C. eight                      D. freight

20. A. serious            B. sunbathe               C. sugar                     D. symptom

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. harvest                        B. contain                  C. flower                    D. awful

22. A. explore                       B. cartoon                  C. dislike                   D. absence

23. A. comfortable   B. anniversary          C. education              D. information

24.  A. decorate                    B. equation   C. history                   D. satellite

25. A. interview        B. regular                   C. restaurant             D. selection

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26 . ……………..do your father play chess at the Chess Club, Lan? - Twice a week.

A. How much            B. How long              C. How often             D. How many

27. My little brother is used to ……………..late in the morning.

A. stay                        B. to stay                   C. staying                              D. stayed

28. My cousin, Ly Hung, is ……………..student in our school.

A. more intelligent  B. the most intelligent  C. intelligenter      D. intelligentest 

29. The …………..always comes early, so my father gets his letters before he goes to work.

A. engineer                B. mailman                C. porter                                D. chemist

30. My friends agreed to come to the festival ……………..from Thomas.

A. except                   B. only                       C. apart                                  D. accept

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING       Listen and fill in the gaps: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. stores	2. hard	3. candy	4. clothes	5. watching
6. watered	7. out	8. take	9. also	10. card
11. downstairs	12. gift	13. helped	14. costs	15. show

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2= 1.0 pt)

16. B. hurry

17. D. chapter

18. A. wanted

19. A. height

20. C. sugar

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. B. contain

22. D. absence

23. A.  comfortable

24. B. equation

25. D. selection

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. C. How often	27. C. staying	28. B. the most intelligent	29. B. mailman	30. C. apart
31. A. to brush	32. B. fell	33. D. celebrations	34. C. Ha doesn’t, either	35. A. in

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. leaves	37. medical	38. thirst	39. unhealthy	40. sensibly
41. prevention	42. alphabetical	43. abilities	44. awake	45. amusement

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. to have

47. will phone

48. not to buy

49. Did...break

50. to make

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10  0.2  = 2.0 pts)

51 - C. their	52- C. watching	53 - C. recent	54 - B. shows	55 - D. front
56 - C. surpsising	57 - A. to	58 - A. well	59 - D. especially	60 - C. learning

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0pts)

61. name	62. his	63. on	64. had	65. when
66. job/ career/ proffession	67. wanted/ wished	68. left	69. stories	70. them

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. What should you do before buying medicine for a cold if you are already taking drugs?

     -> I/ We should talk to the chemist or doctor.

72. In what case are colds dangerous?

     -> When the patients are weak, such as the elderly or young babies.

73. What do people often do when they have a cold?

     -> They often buy lots of medicines which will help to make their cold less unpleasant.

74. What is the writer’s advice to avoid colds?

     -> Keep strong and healthy.

75. What is this passage from?

     -> It’s from a newspaper or a magazine.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. I prefer going fishing to reading books at home.

77. My uncle drives slowlier and more carefully than I do.

78. The heavy rain prevented us from enjoying the trip.

79. Life nowadays is more comfortable than life in the past.

80. We spent two hours planting those trees yesterday.

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

  81. We are going to have a two- week summer vacation in Da Nang next month.

  82. You should eat a variety of foods without eating too much of anything.

  83. My mother was worried about letting me go to the zoo alone yesterday .

  84. The visitor spoke too quickly for me to understand what he/she said.

  85. Miss Lan didn’t go to school last Monday because of her sickness.

III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about the your last holiday: (3.0 pts)

 (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

  - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic.                          (0.5pt)

  - The body: Write details about the holiday/ the sentences must have connectors and link words...                                                                                                                            (2,0 pts)

  - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas, feeling or thoughts about the holiday.(0.5 pt)

     * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

                        - Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more).

                        - Correct vocabulary and structures.

                        - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/  ...).

PART A: PHONETICS:

I.Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

( 3 points)

1.	A. dances	B. misses	C.promises	D.houses
2	A. see	B. free	C. agree	D.coffee
3.	A. naked	B. looked	C. promised	D. booked

II. Choose the words that has a stressed syllable from the others: (2 points)

1.   A. concert	B. teenager	C. comfortable	D. cartoon
2.   A. hotel	B. remember	C. repeat	D.classroom

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:

I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences.

 (24 points)

1. They’ve got….………….…books than me.

A. fewer

B. less

C. much

D. many

2. Does she want......................... her grandparents at weekends?

A. visit

B. visits

C. visiting

D.to visit.

3. Students live and study in a/an………..….…school. They only go home at weekends.

A. international

B. small

C. boarding

D. overseas

4. Of my parents, my father is……………….one.       

A. the stronger

B. the strongest

C. strong

D. stronger

5. This painting is prettier, but it costs ………….the other one.

A.so much as

B. as many as

C. twice as much as

D. twice as many

6.” …………..….a nice T-shirt, Trang!”              - “Thank you”

A. How

B. What

C. Which

D. It

7. I’m always nervous when I’m …………..an exam.

A. taking

B. making

C.working

D. writing

8. My mother has been busy …………..all afternoon.

A. cook

B. cooking

C. to cook

D. cooked

9. “Thank a lot for the lovely dinner”                   “___________”

A. You’re welcome

B. It’s all right

C. Thank you too

D. Please don’t say so

10. Some young people work......................hospital volunteers.

A. as

B. too

C. so

D. same

11. Were you absent…………….school yesterday?       

A. at

B. to

C. from

D. in

12. In the evening, all the family members………………in the livingroom to watch TV.

A. spend

B. come

C. gather

D. stand

13. There’s one satellite TV………that shows only films.

A. station

B. house

C. game

D. program

14. Some people are used to .................in crowded buses and don't mind it at all.

A. riding

B. ride

C. rode

D. to ride

15. You should not ride so…………………. . You may have an accident.

A. careless

B. carelessly

C. carefully

D. careful

16.It is dangerous………………….. in the polluted environment.     

A. to live

B. lives

C. living

D. live

17. The girl was crying when a fairy …………….

A. appeared

B. was appearing

C. appears

D. is appearing

18. She is ……………… a singer nor an actress.

A. neither

B. either

C. nor

D. both

19.The children are playing ………………… in the schoolyard.

A. happy

B. happily

C. happier

D. happiness

20. Everyone must remember………………… lies.

A. don’t tell

B.not tell

C. to tell not

D. not to tell

ĐÁP ÁN

PART A: PHONETICS:

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:

( 3points)

1.D                  2. D                 3. A            

II. Choose the words that has a stressed syllable from the others: (2points)

1. D              2. D

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:

I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences: (24points)

1. A           2. D                  3. C               4. A          5.    C     6.  B     7. A          8. B       9. A

10. A         11. C               12.  C            13. A        14.  A     15.   B     16.A     17.A     18.A

19.B          20.D                  21.B              22.A          23.B.           24.C

II.  Complete the dialogue with the correct tense of the verbs in brackets .(10points)

1.  meeting

2. cooking

3. saw

4. is becoming

5. cry

6. read  / was

7.are going to see / Will you join

8.  lived.

III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. .(10points)

1.household

2. friendly

3. Sensibly

4. furnished

5. hopeless

6. juicy

7. friendship

8. height

9.  carelessly

10. amazing

IV. Fill in each gap in the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5points)    

1. at       2. up       3. about       4 . up           5.   at             6.   up

PART C: READING: 

I. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (5points)  

1 . family                2. good               3. when             4. yourself                5. make

II.Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill the blanks

(5 points).

1. A . full	3. B. and	5. C. of	7 . A . of	9. A. leisurely
2. A. traffic	4. B. begins	6. A. interest	8. B lights	10. A. spend

III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each question below.(5points)

1. C

2.B

3.C

4.A

5.D

PART D: WRITING:

I. Find  a mistake and correct it (6.0points)

1. in -  0

2. was - were

3. serious - seriously

4. thousand  - thousands .              

5. where - how

II. Rewrite each of the following sentence, using the word given, keeping its meaning unchanged .(5.0 points)

1. Charles lives quite near his aunt’s house.                                             DOESN’T

® Charles doesn’t live far from his aunt’s house

2. If you don’t study hard, you will fail the exam                                         UNLESS

®Unless you  study hard, you will fail the exam.

3.The tortoise was running. The hare was sleeping.                                     WHILE

®. The tortoise was running while  The hare was sleeping.    

4. Can the little boy look after himself when his mother is away?                    TAKE

® Can the little boy take care of himself when his mother is away?

5. It is not necessary for you to finish your assignment this evening.             NEED

® You don’t need to finish your assignment this evening.

III. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. .(5 points)

1. àIt took Nam two hours to repaint his house.

2. àLien isn’t very interested in doing sport

3. à What a beautiful painting !

4. à I don’t work as hard as my sister

5. à  Both I and my sister were late for school this morning

IV. Write a short paragraph (100 – 120 words) about  one of the subjects at school that you like best .( 10 points)

PART A: PHONETICS:

I.Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.(3 points)

1.	A. watches	B. misses	C.promises	D.houses
2	A. daily	B. maize	C. laid	D.dairy
3.	A. closed	B. stopped	C. promised	D. booked

II. Choose the words that has a stressed syllable from the others: (2 points)

1.   A.happen	B. open	C. visit	D.advise
2.  A. police	B. remember	C. hotel	D.lesson

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:

I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences.

 (24 points)

1. The relationship between fast food and child obesity _______ very close indeed.

 A. are                         B. is                            C. to be                      D. were

2. There are only two things that one should do _______ a healthy and fit body: eating sensibly and exercising well.

A. keeping                 B. to keep                  C. for keeping           D. keep

3. They are hanging their clothes to make them _______.

 A. to dry                    B. dried                      C. dry                         D. drying

4. This dress is the _______ expensive of the four dresses.

A. most                      B. more                      C. much                     D. best

5. Dairy products _______ butter, cheese and milk.

A. are including        B. included                C. includes                D. include

6. You shouldn’t eat too much sugar and don’t forget about exercise, _______.

A. too                         B. so                           C. either                     D. neither

7. Are there _______ for me this morning?

 A. any letters            B. some letters          C. any letter              D. some letter

8.Solar energy _______ by many countries in the world in the future.

A. will be used           B. will use               C. will be using          D.use

9. He came into the room, _______ the light and _______ the door behind him.

 A. turned on / closing                                  B. turning on / closing

C. turned on / closed                                    D. turning on / closed

10. What about _______ to Hue on Sunday?

 A. to go                      B. go                           C. goes                       D. going

11. This papaya is green. It is not __________.

A. small                     B. yellow                   C. good                      D. ripe

12. I didn’t go to the cinema yesterday and Lan __________.

A. doesn’t, either      B. didn’t, neither      C. didn’t, either        D. wasn’t, either

13. Would you like to go to the movies tonight?  - __________

A. Yes, I do               B. Yes, I would         C. Yes, I’d love to    D. Yes, please

14. Some people play video games at home. __________ play them in arcades.

A. Others                   B. Other                     C. Another                D. Each other

15. Hoa is reading short stories __________ Jack London.

A. of                           B. from                       C. by                           D. with

ĐÁP ÁN

PART A: PHONETICS:

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:

( 3points)

1.D                  2. D                 3. A            

II. Choose the words that has a stressed syllable from the others: (2points)

1. D              2. D

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:

I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences: (24points)

1. B                 2. B                 3. C                             4. A                             5. D

6. C                 7. A                 8. A                             9. C                             10. D

11. D               12. C               13. C                           14. A                           15. C

16.B             17.C            18.D                       19.A                        20.B                

 21.B              22.A           23.B.                      24.C

II.  Complete the dialogue with the correct tense of the verbs in brackets .(10points)

1. meeting      2. will make                3. to finish/talking       4. left       5. are…thinking

6. looks          7. not to tell                   8. leaving/ found

III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. .(10points)

1. UNSUCCESSFUL            2. CHILHOOD          3. BETTER                4. INFORMATIVE

5. UNPOLLUTED                6. FLIGHTS              7. COOKER             8. HOUSEHOLD

9. EASILY                             10.PRONUNCIATION

IV. Fill in each gap in the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5points)    

1. out  2. in                3. into             4. at                5. with       6.up

PART C: READING: 

I. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (5points)  

1 . was                2.about               3. has            4.best                5.life

II.Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill the blanks

(5 points).

1. A	3.B	5. D	7 .A	9. A
2. B	4. C	6. B	8. D	10.B

III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each question below.(5points)

1. C                 2. B                 3. C                 4. A                 5. B

PART D: WRITING:

I. Find  a mistake and correct it (6.0points)

Câu	Sai	Sửa
1.	go	went
2.	five – minutes	five – minute
3.	to wake	wake
4.	walking	walk
5.	to watch	watching

II. Rewrite each of the following sentence, using the word given, keeping its meaning unchanged .(5.0 points)

1. ® We won’t hold the festival if it costs too much money.

2.®Nam prefers playing football to going to the zoo.

3.® The tortoise was running while the hare was sleeping.    

4. ® Can the little boy take care of himself when his mother is away?

5. ® You don’t need to finish your assignment this evening.

III. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. .(5 points)

1. Our grandparents paid a visit to Halong Bay last summer.

2. Mr. Hoang spent half an hour walking to work yesterday.

3. It is not easy to find an apartment in a big city.

4. The bad weather prevented us from going to the beach.

5. We have a two-month vacation.

IV. Write a passage of about 120- 150 words on the following topic “Why should we learn English?” (10 points)

Marking criteria:

• Bài viết có bố cục 3 phần, nội dung tốt: 4.0 points
• Tính chính xác về ngữ pháp và từ vựng, chính tả: 4.0 points
• Tính liên kết giữa câu, đoạn: 2.0 points

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