| TRƯỜNG THPT XUÂN TÔ | ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 (Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề) |
1. Đề số 1
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (8 points)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. exist B. exam C. exhaust D. excite
Question 2: A. animal B. attention C. admirable D. atmosphere
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress pattern is different.
Question 3: A. example B. continue C. sensible D. contestant
Question 4: A. evacuate B. environment C. communicate D. unexpected
Question 5: A. surface B. major C. cover D. machine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 6: I waved to Karen but failed _______ her attention.
A. to be attracted B. to attract C. attracting D. attracted
Question 7: He refused to give up work, _______ he had won a million dollars.
A. even though B. however C. as though D. despite
Question 8: The policeman wanted to know _______.
A. where he was last night B. where he had been the previous night
C. where he was the night before D. where he had been last night
Question 9: He played a very important _______ in politics until he was well over 80.
A. scene B. job C. position D. part
Question 10: This is the third time James _______ the volunteer program to the village.
A. has been joining B. joined C. has joined D. joins
Question 11: The more he tried to explain, _______ we got
A. the much confused B. the many confusing
C. the more confusing D. the more confused
Question 12: Dr. Evans has _______ a valuable contribution to the life of the school.
A. done B. created C. caused D. made
Question 13: Lorie is very thin, _______ her young sister, who is quite heavy.
A. unlike B. dissimilar to C. dislike D. unlikely
Question 14: The news was _______ to them that they were all dead silent.
A. such shock B. such a shock C. so shock D. too shock
Question 15: If she can make up such stories, she is certainly a very_______ girl.
A. imaginary B. imaginable C. imaginative D. imagining
Question 16: If you hadn't stayed up so late last night, you _______ sleepy now.
A. wouldn't have felt B. wouldn't feel
C. wouldn't fell D. wouldn't have fallen
Question 17: I never read _______ newspapers during the week, but I buy _______ Observer every Sunday and I read it in _______ bed.
A. no article / the / no article B. the / the / no article
C. the / a / the D. a / a / the
Question 18: The Nile, _______, is the home of a great variety of fish.
A. which is in Egypt B. where is in Egypt
C. in which is in Egypt D. that is in Egypt
Question 19: Would someone take responsibility _______ bringing chalk to class?
A. to B. with C. for D. of
Question 20: We need _______ information before we can decide.
A. further B. farther C. far D. furthest
Question 21: “We’d better ________ if we want to get there in time”
A. speed up B. take up C. turn down D. put down
Question 22: Only in the Civil War _______ killed or wounded.
A. soldiers in America were B. so many American soldiers were
C. many in America were D. were so many American soldiers
Question 23: _______ is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants which make a balanced environment.
A. extinction B. biodiversity C. conservation D. habitat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: John: “Are you ready, Tom? There’s not much time left.”
- Tom: “Yes, just a minute. _______!”
A. I’m coming B. No longer
C. I’d be OK D. I won’t finish
Question 25: Mary: “Do you enjoy the movie yesterday?” - Linda: “_______.”
A. No, I dislike moving B. Yes, it is warmer than today
C. Certainly, I’d be glad to D. Not really. I couldn’t follow the story
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 26: The situation is so chaotic in many cities and it is not safe to be out at night.
A. uncontrolled B. natural C. busy D. crowded
Question 27: Reaching thirty five and obviously aging, Jean has to make up her mind on her future very soon
A. give a thought about B. make a decision on
C. prepare a plan for D. pay attention to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 28: Training for the Olympic require an enormous amount of work: athletes who want to compete must work extremely hard.
A. very large B. very common C. unusual D. small
Question 29: Since it is to be a surprise, don’t let the cat out of the bag.
A. let the bag away from the cat B. reveal the true story
C. keep the cat inside the bag D. hide the secret
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 30: After she had dressed and ate breakfast, Lucy rushed off to her office for a meeting with her accountant.
A. ate B. rushed off C. to her D. with
Question 31: One of the countries which I want to visit most are France.
A. One of B. which C. to visit D. are
Question 32: The Bactrian, or Asian camel can be identified by their two humps.
A. or B. can be C. identified D. their
Question 33: The house painted three years ago, but I’m not going to have it done again.
A. but B. painted C. going to D. done
Question 34: If each of the seven continents were placed in the Pacific Ocean, it would still be room left for another continent the size of Asia.
A. were placed B. the C. it D. another
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Lake Baikal, the world’s largest lake, is located in southern Siberia, in Russia. It measures 395 miles long by 50 miles wide and it has 1,245 miles of coastline. The lake’s rocky basin consists of three depressions, which hold a total volume of 14,656 cubic miles of water, 20 percent of the freshwater in the world. The lake is also very deep, with its deepest point at over 1 mile and an average depth of 2,066 feet. Furthermore, scientists have determined that Lake Baikal is the oldest lake in the world. From sediment obtained by drilling deep down below the lake, researchers estimate it to be at least 25 million years old.
To scientists, Lake Baikal is of particular interest because of its unique and isolated ecosystem. More than 1,000 species of plants and animals found at Lake Baikal exist nowhere else on earth and some can be dated to prehistoric times. Among its unique fauna is the Baikal freshwater seal. This creature, which local people call nerpa, is the only mammal which inhabits the lake. Researchers speculate that these seals, which have been breeding at Lake Baikal for 22 million years, are the descendents of ocean-dwelling seals which migrated inland in search of food, when the lake was still connected to the sea. Another creature that is unique to this Siberian Lake is the omu, a fish, which is caught by local fisherman and is considered a great delicacy.
For centuries, the water in Lake Baikal was so clear that it was possible to see down to depths of 40 to 60 feet. Several factors contributed to keeping the water crystal clear. First, the lake contained certain small zooplankton and small crustaceans that consumed waterweeds, bacteria, and other material that would otherwise cloud the water. Furthermore, the water in the lake consisted of rainwater and melted snow that flowed down from a mountain range in about 300 streams and through uninhabited forest. Finally, most of the watershed has a rocky surface, so the water flowing into the lake did not accumulate mud or organic matter and had little mineral or chemical content.
Question 35: The word “which” in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. the rocky basin B. the lake
C. the total water volume D. three depressions
Question 36: All of the following is mentioned EXCEPT that _______.
A. Lake Baikal is the world’s largest lake
B. Lake Baikal is located in Russia
C. Lake Baikal is the deepest lake in the world
D. Lake Baikal is the oldest lake in the world
Question 37: All of the following are true about Lake Baikal EXCEPT that _______.
A. it has a great variety of fish
B. it is near the sea
C. it has the biggest amount of freshwater in the world
D. it is about 25 million years old
Question 38: Scientists are particularly interested in Lake Baikal because _______.
A. its ecosystem is special
B. the animals there are similar to elsewhere
C. it has more species of plants than anywhere else
D. it is isolated
Question 39: Baikal fresh seal is _______.
A. the only habitants of the lake Baikal
B. only found in the lake Baikal
C. has been breeding at the lake for 32 million years
D. a species of plant
Question 40: Omu is mentioned in the passage as _______.
A. a local fisherman B. an animal migrating inland from the sea
C. descendents of ocean-dwelling seals D. an animal unique to the lake
Question 41: The water of the lake Baikal is _______.
A. used to make crystal B. toxic C. made of crystal D. transparent
Question 42: According to the passage, there are _______ factors contributing to the clarity of the water in Lake Baikal.
A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4
Question 43: The word cloud in the final paragraph can be best replaced by _______.
A. cold B. dirty C. clean D. muddy
Question 44: The water in the lake is from all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. snow B. rainwater C. streams D. forests
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the blanks.
DO SMALLER CLASSES REALLY HELP?
In an experiment in Canada, ten-year-old children were put in classes of four sizes: 16, 23, 30 and 37 children in (45) ____ class. Their teachers said that the smaller classes would result in more individual (46) _______ and better marks. However, when the children were (47) ____, those in the smaller classes didn’t get higher marks than (48) _______, except in mathematics. Moreover, children in the larger classes said they liked school (49) ____ as much.
Perhaps the most surprising result was the difference between (50) _______ teachers expected and the actual results obtained. More than 90% of the teachers expected the smaller classes to (51) ____ well.
After teaching these smaller classes, over 80% of the teachers thought the pupils had done better. (52) _______, according to the researchers, nothing of the (53) ____ happened. Class size seemed to make a difference only to the teachers’ own (54) _______ - and not to the results they obtained.
(Source: “Longman Tests in Contexts” by J.B. Heaton)
Question 45: A. every B. each C. one D. either
Question 46: A. direction B. instruction C. attention D. experiment
Question 47: A. tested B. experimented C. taught D. checked
Question 48: A. others B. another C. the other D. the others
Question 49: A. only B. so C. just D. also
Question 50: A. what B. how C. these D. those
Question 51: A. make B. do C. test D. obtain
Question 52: A. Thus B. Furthermore C. However D. Therefore
Question 53: A. sort B. type C. variety D. form
Question 54: A. emotion B. performance C. tasks D. attitudes
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Most human diets contain between 10 and 15 percent of their total calories as protein. The rest of the dietary energy comes from carbohydrates, fats, and in some people, alcohol. The proportion of calories from fats varies from 10 percent in poor communities to 40 percent or more in rich communities.
In addition to providing energy, fats have several other functions in the body. The fat-soluble vitamins, A, D, E, and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good sources of these vitamins have high oil or fat content, and the vitamins are stored in the body’s fatty tissues. In the diet, fats cause food to remain longer in the stomach, thus increasing the feeling of fullness for some time after a meal is eaten. Fats add variety, taste, and texture to foods, which accounts for the popularity of fried foods. Fatty deposits in the body have an insulating and protective value. The curves of the human female body are due mostly to strategically located fat deposits.
Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet is essential to human health is not definitely known. When rats are fed a fat-free diet, their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes inflamed and scaly, and their reproductive systems are damaged. Two fatty acids, linoleic and arachidonic acids, prevent these abnormalities and hence are called essential fatty acids. They also are required by a number of other animals, but their roles in human beings are debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic fatty acid an essential nutrient for humans.
Question 55: This passage probably appeared in which of the following?
A. diet book B. A book on basic nutrition
C. A cookbook D. A popular women’ s magazine
Question 56: We can infer from the passage that all of the following statements about fats are true EXCEPT:
A. fats provide energy for the body
B. economics influences the distribution of calorie intake
C. poor people eat more fatty foods
D. alcohol is not a common source of dietary energy
Question 57: The word “functions” in line 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. forms B. needs C. jobs D. sources
Question 58: The phrase “stored in” in line 7 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. manufactured in B. attached to
C. measured by D. accumulated in
Question 59: The author states that fats serve all of the following body functions EXCEPT to _______.
A. promote a feeling of fullness B. insulate and protect the body
C. provide energy D. control weight gain
Question 60: The word “essential to” in line 12 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. required for B. desired for C. detrimental to D. beneficial to
Question 61: According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true for rats when they are fed a fat free diet?
A. They stop growing B. They have more babies
C. They lose body hair D. They require less care
Question 62: Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned in the passage as _______.
A. an essential nutrient for humans B. more useful than arachidonic acid
C. preventing weight gain in rats D. a nutrient found in most foods
Question 63: The phrase “these abnormalities” refers to _______.
A. a condition caused by fried foods
B. strategically located fat deposits
C. curves on the human female body
D. cessation of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems
Question 64: That humans should all have some fat our diet is, according to the author, _______.
A. a commonly held view B. not yet a proven fact
C. only true for women D. proven to be true by experiments in rats
PART B: WRITING (2 points)
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
Question 1: Had it not been for your help, he would have been in a worse mess.
But for ………………………………………………………………………
Question 2: Visitors mustn’t touch the exhibits in the museum.
Visitors aren’t ………………………………………………………………………
Question 3: If I were you I’d look for another job.
I suggest ……………………………………………………………………………
Question 4: People continue to pollute the air in the city with traffic fumes.
The air ………………………………………………………………………………
Question 5: After six years of studying abroad, Michael returned home as a doctor of law.
After Michael …………………………………………………………………
Part 2: Write a paragraph of 120-150 words to express your opinions on the following question:
“Should animals be kept in zoos?"
ĐÁP ÁN
1D 2B 3C 4D 5D 6B 7A 8B 9D 10C 11D 12D 13A 14B 15C 16B 17A 18A 19C 20A 21A 22D 23B 24A 25D 26 27B 28D 29D 30A 31D 32D 33B 34C 35D 36C 37A 38A 39B 40D 41D 42C 43B 44D 45B 46C 47A 48D 49C 50A 51B 52C 53A 54D 55B 56C 57C 58D 59D 60A 61A 62A 63D 64B
Question 1: But for your help, he would have been in a worse mess.
Question 2: Visitors aren’t allowed to touch the exhibits in the museum.
Question 3: I suggest (that) you (should) look for another job.
Question 4: The air in the city continues to be polluted with traffic fumes
Question 5: After Michael had studied abroad for 6 years, he returned home as a doctor of law.
2. Đề số 2
Part I: Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D.
1. Our holiday was_________ by the weather.
A. spoilt B. damaged C. overcome D. wasted
2. The_________ charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually high.
A. hire B. price C. fees D. sum
3. He_________ his son of the dangers of driving too fast in his new car
A. warned B. remembered C. threatened D. concerned
4. The child was_________ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street.
A. knocked out B. run across C. run out D. knocked down
5. When Ali arrived in London he spent all his time_________ and visited all the important museums and buildings.
A. sight-seeing B. traveling C. looking D. touring
6. If you want a cheap air ticket you must_________ well in advance.
A. book B. engage C. reserve D. buy
7. His sister was full of_________ for the way in which he had so quickly learned to drive a car.
A. pride B. admiration C. surprise D. jealousy
8. He asked if we would_________ to share the room.
A. accept B. consider C. agree D. approve
9. I wondered whether you would like to_________ to the theater tomorrow.
A. visit B. go away C. go out D. walk out
10. _________ I would like to say how pleased I am to be here.
A. Primarily B. Foremost C. Earliest D. First
11. The independent arbitrator managed to_________ the confrontation between the union and the employers.
A. refuse B. confuse C. refute D. defuse
12. When I heard the footsteps behind me I was_________ that I would be attacked.
A. horrified B. terror-struck C. terrorized D. terrified
13. His illness made him_________ of concentration.
A. incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless
14. Has the committee_________ a decision yet?
A. done B. made C. arrived D. voted
15. I am a bit hungry. I think_____________ something to eat.
A. I’ll have B. I’ll be having C. I’m going to have D. I’m having
16. What do you plan to do when you_____________ your course at college?
A. finish B. will finish C. have finished D. is going to finish
17. Where_____________? Which hairdresser did you go to?
A. did you cut your hair B. have you cut your hair
C. did you have cut your hair D. did you have your hair cut
18. ‘Shall I stay here?’ ~ ‘I’d rather_____________ with us’.
A. you come B. you to come C. you would come D. you came
19. I_____________ saying what I think.
A. believe B. believe in C. believe for D. believe when
20. Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunately I_____________ just in time.
A. could stop B. could have stopped
C. managed to stop D. must be able to stop
Part II: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.
| Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. Achievement tests are designed to measure acquiring skills and knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness taught. The proficiency exams required by few states for high school graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a person’s ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, vocation aptitude tests can help you decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or musician. However, all mental tests are in some sense achievement tests because they assumption some sort of past learning or experience with certainly objects, words, or situations. The difference between achievement and aptitude tests is the degree and intention use. | 0. traditional → traditionally 1. _____________________ 2. _____________________ 3. _____________________ 4. _____________________ 5. _____________________ 6. _____________________ 7. _____________________ 8. _____________________ 9. _____________________ 10. _____________________
|
Part III: Give the correct form of the words in brackets to fill in the blanks.
Dark black clouds in a dull sky meant one thing and one thing only: there was going to be a (1.thunder)….. Not one of us had brought an umbrella, or even a (2.rain)……. So when Jack suggested we should go to a museum, we all agreed immediately. As we had been (3. shop)………all morning we were now feeling very tired, it would be a (4. pleasant)………...to sit down. We took a bus and arrived just as large shops of rain were beginning to fall.
The museum was quite (5.desert)……and very peaceful. We sat down in the main hall and listened to the rain (6. beat)…….against the windows.
Suddenly, there was a great (7. disturb)……..at the (8. enter)……… a large party of schoolboys were (9. lead) ………in by a teacher. The poor man was trying to keep them quiet and threatening to punish them, but they did not pay the (10.slight)……. attention.
Section B: Reading
Part I: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. Fill each numbered blank with one suitable word from the list given below.
The shark is a meat- eating fish and one of the most feared animals of the sea. Scientists (1)………… about 250 species of fish as sharks. These fish live in oceans (2)………..the world, but they are most common in warm seas.
Sharks (3)………….greatly in size and habits. Whale sharks, the largest kind of shark, may grow 60 feet long. A whale shark weighs up to 15 tons, more than twice (4)…………….much as an African elephant. The smallest shark may (5)…………..only 4 inches long and weigh less than 1 ounce. Some kinds of sharks live in the depths of the ocean, but (6)……………are found near the surface. Some species live in coastal waters, but others (7)……………far out at sea. A few species can even live in (8)…………..water.
All sharks are carnivores (meat- eaters). Most of them eat (9)…………fish, including other sharks. A shark’s only natural enemy is a large shark. Sharks eat their prey whole, or they tear off large chunks of flesh. They also (10)………………..on dead or dying animals.
1. A. classify B. divide C. organize D. arrange
2. A. all B. through C. throughout D. over
3. A. grow B. rise C. evolve D. vary
4. A. as B. so C. very D. exactly
5. A. stretch B. measure C. develop D. expand
6. A. some others B. others C. different kinds D. some sharks
7. A. dwell B. exist C. emigrate D. migrate
8. A. fresh B. sweet C. light D. clear
9. A. uncooked B. live C. lively D. alive
10. A. eat B. swallow C. exist D. feed
Part II: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to fill in the blanks.
Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this century, thirteen vitamins have been (1)…………
A lack of any vitamins in a person’s body can cause illness. In some cases, an excess of vitamins can also (2)…………to illness. For example, sailors in the past were prone to (3)…………from scurvy that is a disease resulting from the lack of vitamin C. It causes bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer from scurvy because they did not eat fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables (4)…………vitamin C which is necessary for good (5)…………
Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these vitamins will lead to different (6)…………For instance, a person who has too little vitamin B1 will suffer from beri-beri, a disease that causes heart problems and mental (7)…………A lack of vitamin B2 results in eye and skin problems while deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of the nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The (8)…………that vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to cure people suffering from these illnesses by giving them doses of the (9)……...vitamins.
Today, vitamins are (10)…………in the form of pills and can easily be bought at any pharmacy.
Part III: Read the following passage and answer the questions by choosing the best answer among A, B, C or D.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. That small enslaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, more than 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of nonnative users of any language in the world.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The number of nonnative users of English.
B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language.
D. The use of English for science and technology.
2. English began to be used beyond England approximately.............................
A. in 1066 B. around 1350
C. before 1600 D. after 1600
3. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world EXCEPT .....................................
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion
C. missionaries. D. colonization
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Most of the information stored on computer systems is in English.
B. Only one thirds of the world’s science writing is in languages other than English.
C. English is the only language used in technology, and advertising.
D. International airports and air controllers use mostly English.
5. According to the passage, approximately how many nonnative users of English are there in the world today?
A. A quarter million B. Half a million
C. 350 million D. 700 million.
Part IV: Read the passage then choose the best sentences A-K to fill in each gap. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use:
BITTER WATER HITS THE BIG TIME
Chocolate, which has its origins in South America, is now part of a multi-million pound worldwide business.
At Easter, British people spend over $230 million on chocolate. A massive eight per cent of all chocolate is bought at this time.
(1)____. Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in the last century, the cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec, Toltec and Mayan civilizations of Central America over three thousand years ago.
The cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa, South and Central America, the West Indies and South East Asia. The fruit of this tree is melon-sized and contains 20-40 seeds. (2)____. In English – speaking countries, they are called cocoa beans. This is a misspelling from the 17th century when they were also called cacoa and cocao beans.
The Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (3)____. This is from the world in the Aztec language, Nahuatl, meaning “bitter water”. (4)____. The Spanish found the drink more palatable mixed with cinnamon and sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of Europe for another century. In the late 17th century, chocolate houses were set up in Europe’s capital cities, where people gathered to drink chocolate.
(5)____. But in 1826, CJ van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate powder. (6)____.
The age of the chocolate bar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol company, Fry and Sons, combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate liquor and sugar to produce a solid block that you could eat. (7)____.
At the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated by French companies. In 1879 the English company Cadbury even named their Birmingham factory Bournville (ville is the French word for town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off. But then came Cadbury’s famous Dairy Milk bar which began life as a Dairymaid in 1905. (8)____.
It seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain has established at about four bars each week. (9)____. The latest market trick is the so-called “extended line”. This is when the humble chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a dessert, to tempt chocoholics who have grown tired of conventional snacks.
At the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still feeling the effects of a crash in cocoa bean prices at the end of 1980s. (10)____. Perhaps you could spare a thought for them as you munch your next chocolate bars.
A. This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed beans.
B. A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave us milk chocolate.
C. They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl.
D. Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid blocks of chocolate which had to be melted down in hot water.
E. When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make chocolate.
F. Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of milk from the English countryside quickly established the bar as a rival to the more decadent French brands.
G. British manufacturers include up to 5 per cent vegetable fat in their chocolate, something forbidden elsewhere.
H. As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced out of business.
I. This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract customers.
J. In Aztec times the chocolate drink was flavored with spices and used on ceremonial occasions and for welcoming visitors.
K. Only at Christmas do people eat more of the cocoa-based foodstuffs.
Section C: Writing
Part I: Rewrite the following sentences so that they have a similar meaning with the first one.
1. “Don’t forget to phone the police”, she said
She reminded him .................................................. .................................................. .........
2. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
The man............................................... .................................................. ...................
3. A small church lies at the foot of the hill.
At the foot .................................................. .................................................. .....................
4. If you changed your mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club .
Were you .................................................. .................................................. ......................
5. We don’t have to do so many things to please him.
It is .................................................. .................................................. .................................
6. I’m sure he didn’t do it by himself.
He................................................ .................................................. ........................................
7. He can’t afford to go to America this summer.
He doesn’t .................................................. .................................................. ......................
8. Timmy has become confident as a result of his success .
Timmy’s success has turned............................................ ................................................
9. I haven't seen my uncle for a long time.
It's a long time .................................................. .................................................. ....................
10. She dances beautifully and she sings sweetly, too.
Not only .................................................. .................................................. .............................
Part II: Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one , using the word in capital letters which must not be altered in any way:
1. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not. (consideration)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. People don’t want to buy cars with large engines any more. (call)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.(halved)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident (prompt)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
Part III: Write a composition (300 words) about the following topic:
How do movies and television influence people’s behavior? Use reasons and specific examples to support your answer.
ĐÁP ÁN
Section A: Grammar & Vocabulary (40điểm)
Part I (1x 20= 20 điểm)
| Câu | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
|
| A | C | A | D | A | A | B | A | C | D |
| Câu | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
|
| D | D | C | B | A | A | D | D | B | C |
Part II (1 x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. acquiring → acquired 6. vocation → vocational
2. explicitness → explicitly 7. like → as
3. few → a few 8. assumption → assume
4. and → to 9. certainly → certain
5. but → to 10. intention → intended
Part III (1 x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. thunderstorm 2. raincoat 3. shopping 4. pleasure 5. deserted
6. beating 7. disturbance 8. entrance 9. led 10. slightest
Section B: Reading (35 điểm)
Part I ( 1x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D
Part II (1x 10 = 10 điểm)
| 1.discovered | 2. lead | 3. suffer | 4. contain | 5. health |
| 6. diseases | 7. disorders | 8. knowledge | 9. necessary | 10. available |
Part III (1x 5= 5 điểm)
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C `5. C
Part IV (1x 10= 10 điểm)
1.K 2.E 3.C 4.J 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.F 9.I 10H
Section C: Writing (25 điểm)
Part I (1x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. She reminded him to phone the police.
2. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car
3. At the foot of the hill lies a small church
4. Were you to change you mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club.
5. It is unnecessary to do so many things to please him.
6. He can’t have done it by himself.
7. He doesn’t have enough money to go to America this summer.
8. Timmy’s success has turned him into a confident person.
9. It’s a long time since I last saw my uncle/ I saw my uncle for the last time.
10. Not only does she dance beautifully but she also sings sweetly.
Part II (1x 5= 5 điểm)
1. You should take the price into consi…..
2. there is no(longer any)/ there isn’t much call for cars……..
3 .coal production/ the coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
4. there is little likelihood. The likelihood………is small of the PM calling an…/that the PM will call a…….
5. The policeman’s prompt action averted/ the prompt action of the policeman averted …
3. Đề số 3
A. LISTENING
Hướng dẫn làm bài Nghe:
Bài Nghe gồm có 02 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài.
Part I: Listen to the recording and choose the best answer to each question (7.0 points):
1. When was gold discovered in San Francisco?
A. In 1784 B. In 1848 C. In 1884 D. In 1948
2. Where is Sutter’s Mill located?
A. In the East of San Francisco. B. In the Northeast of San Francisco.
C. In the Southeast of San Francisco. D. In the Middle of San Francisco.
3. Among 100,000 people who reached the coast of California, only ________ were women.
A. 8,000 B. 18,000 C. 38,000 D. 28,000
4. ________had traveled overland across the American continent.
A. All of them B. Few of them C. Half of them D. More than half of them
5. ________ were abandoned as everyone rushed to California.
A. Saloons, farms and houses B. Homes and farms
C. Homes, farms, stores and factories D. Homes, farms and stores
6. What happened to many of the ships which were anchored in San Francisco Bay?
A. They were preserved. B. They were sold.
C. They were deserted. D. They were destroyed .
7. It can be inferred from the listening that laws and orders at that time were ________.
A. violated B. respected C. modified D. observed
Part II: Listen to the recording and write down the correct answer A, or B, C to each question (8.0 points):
| SPEAKER | WHERE PEOPLE DECIDE TO EAT | ||
| 1 | A. Chinese restaurant | B. Fast Fried Chicken | C. Fast food |
| 2 | A. Quick Burger | B. Hamburgers | C. Pizza Pit |
| 3 | A. home | B. out | C. restaurant |
| 4 | A. steak house | B. Korean restaurant | C. Japanese restaurant |
| 5 | A. seafood restaurant | B. pizza restaurant | C. steak house |
| 6 | A. Korean restaurant | B. Japanese restaurant | C. Mexican restaurant |
| 7 | A. fast-food restaurant | B. French restaurant | C. Hamburgers |
| 8 | A. French restaurant | B. home | C. Thai vegetarian restaurant |
| 8. Speaker 1:_______ | 9. Speaker 2:_______ | 10. Speaker 3:_______ | 11. Speaker 4:_______ |
| 12. Speaker 5:______ | 13. Speaker 6:______ | 14. Speaker 7:_______ | 15. Speaker 8:_______ |
B. PHONETICS
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from that of the others (5.0 points):
16. A. photographer B. participant C. professional D. destination
17. A. determine B. interrupt C. impossible D. atomic
18. A. nutritious B. contemptuous C. numerous D. contagious
19. A. questionnaire B. Japanese C. engineer D. practical
20. A. elephant B. rhinoceros C. habitat D. leopard
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (20 points):
21. A number of houses were ________ so that a new school could be built.
A. wiped out B. destroyed C. demolished D. attacked
22. “I’m sorry, Mrs. Thomson. I didn’t break the clock ________ purpose,” said the little girl.
A. by B. on C. with B. for
23. Lama: “________, Lily?” Lily: “Oh, terrific. Thanks.”
A. What did you do during your geography field trip
B. How was your geography field trip
C. How did you spend your geography field trip
D. Did you have a nice geography field trip
24. It is commonly known that the Greenhouse Effect occurs ________ heat radiated from the Sun.
A. when the earth’s atmosphere trap
B. when does the earth’s atmosphere trap
C. when the earth’s atmosphere is trapped
D. when the earth’s atmosphere traps
25. The floor was so rotten that it almost gave ________ under Tommy’s weight.
A. way B. away C. back D. up
26. Boss: “Have you been able to reach that customer?” Secretary: “________.”
A. Oh, there’s no approval B. Yes, I have known him for 6 years
C. It’s much too high to reach D. Oh, no. The line’s busy
27. In Vietnam, many ________ crafts such as weaving and embroidering are now being revised.
A. ordinary B. traditional C. habitual D. customary
28. ________, Mike always feels lonely and unhappy.
A. Despite his wealthy B. However rich he is C. Rich as is he D. In spite of his being wealth
29. About 600 years ago, ________ that glass coated with silver nitrate would turn yellow when fired in an oven.
A. the discovery B. it discovered C. it was discovered D. it was discovering
30. Tom: “Do you want me to give you a hand with the washing?” Maria: “________.”
A. No, thanks. You can say that again B. No, thanks. I can manage it myself
C. Of course, not for me D. Thanks. Your hands are so warm.
31. Jack promised to join us for dinner, but, to our disappointment, he didn’t ________.
A. turn up B. take in C. make off D. pull out
32. The explorers ________ for two days without food before they ________ a small cottage under an oak.
A. has been walking / saw B. were walking / saw
C. had been walking / saw D. walked / had seen
33. ________ blue whale, breathes air through a hole at the top of its head.
A. The B. The largest mammal C. The largest D. The largest mammal, the
34. Bob: “Take care of yourself, Kevin.” Kevin: “________.”
A. Yes, I do B. Not at all C. I will D. You’re welcome
35. I think my car needs________. It stops running every five or six miles.
A. to repair B. repairing C. to be repairing D. repaired
36. No sooner ________ home ________ that the house had been broken into.
A. had Ms. Taylor arrived / when she found B. had Ms. Taylor arrived / than she finds
C. had Ms. Taylor arrived / than she found D. did Ms. Taylor arrive / when she found
37. Mark: “Do you think that smoking should be banned in public.” Veronica: “________.”
A. Yes, it’s an absurd idea B. Well, that’s very surprising
C. Of course not. You bet D. There’s no doubt about it.
38. ________ to her cousin’s wedding party, she would not have met her old friend, Bob.
A. If Sarah didn’t go B. If Sarah hasn’t gone
C. Had Sarah not gone D. Has Sarah not gone
39. The long journey in an ________ car made the little boy tired out.
A. air-condition B. air-conditioned C. air-conditioner D. air-conditioning
40. The reporters thought that the football manager would be depressed by his dismissal, but he just ________.
A. ran it down B. called it off C. laughed it off D. turned it down
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5.0 points):
41. As Vietnam is on the way to develop and integrate into the world, there is a great demand for skillful (TECHNICAL) ________.
42. Many species of plants and animals found in this area can be dated back to (HISTORY)________ times.
43. The Prime Minister showed his nervousness by constantly (STRAIGHT) ________ his tie.
44. There isn’t enough coal for the coming winter, so we have to use it (SPARE) ________.
45. We are sorry for Jackie. She was (ORPHAN) ________ as a baby.
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5.0 points):
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ĐÁP ÁN
A. LISTENING
Part I: (7.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
1. 1848 2. east 3. 8,000 4. the American continent
5. farms and stores 6. deserted 7. broke down
Part II: (8.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
8. B 9. C 10.A 11. B
12. A 13. C 14. B 15. B
B. PHONETICS
(5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
16. D 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. (20 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
21. C 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. A
26. D 27. B 28. B 29. C 30. B
31. A 32. C 33. D 34. C 35. B
36. C 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. C
II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
41. TECHNICIANS 42. PREHISTORIC 43. STRAIGHTENING
44. SPARINGLY 45. ORPHANED
III. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
46. B 47. D 48. B 49. B 50. B
D. READING
I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
51. E 52. D 53. G 54. B 55. C
II. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
56. B 57. C 58. C 59. A 60. D
61. B 62. D 63. B 64. B 65. A
II. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
66. A 67. C 68. A 69. C 70. C
71. B 72. D 73. D 74. C 75. D
E. WRITING
Part I: (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
76. So as not to disturb the lecturer, Jenny entered the room quietly
77. There has been a sharp decrease in the price of crude oil in recent years.
78. Were I you / Were I in your position / Were I in your shoes, I would not invest all my / the money in the property market.
79. So exhausted was Ben that he couldn’t complete the marathon race.
80. My children have never read a funnier story than that (one).
Or, My children have never read such a funny story before.
Part II: (10 points):
Dear Sir or Madam,
81. In reply to your advertisement (0.5 p) in the Baltimore Sun newspaper on April 2, 2016 (0.5 p), I write / am writing to apply for the post of secretary (0.5 p).
82. In the / your advertisement, you say / said (that) (0.5 p) you are / were looking for a secretary with good typing skills (0.5 p) who is / must be fluent in German (0.5 p).
83. I have just completed a / the two-year secretarial course (0.5 p) at the College of St. John (0.5 p).
84. At the end of the / my course (0.5 p), I passed all the exams with flying colors (0.5 p).
85. Before I started the / my course (0.5 p), I had spent 2 years in Hanover living with a German family (0.5 p).
86. While I was / stayed there (0.5 p), I learnt (how) to speak German fluently (0.5 p).
87. In addition, I had a chance to work as a part-time office assistant for / in a German company (1.0 p).
88. I would / should be grateful (0.5 p) if you could send me (some) more information about the job and an application form (0.5 p).
89. Enclosed herewith is my resume and a letter of recommendation (0.5 p).
90. I look / am looking forward to hearing from you (0.5 p).
Yours faithfully,
Catherine Smith
4. Đề số 4
B. PHONETICS (5 points). Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
16. A. community B. developing C. conditioner D. interested
17. A. continue B. importance C. different D. directed
18. A. medicines B. opposite C. pollution D. capable
19. A. preservation B. inspiration C. disposable D. popularity
20. A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer
C. GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15 points).
21. Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?”
Mary: “_________”
A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you.
C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one. D. Neither. I’m going to lease one.
22. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!”
Mr John: “_________”
A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so.
23. You have never been to Italy, ________?
A. have you B. haven’t you C. did you D. had you
24. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ________.
A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality
25. “How is it going?” - “________”
A. By bike B. Not much C. It sounds better D. Mustn’t grumble
26. ________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.
A. Because B. He is C. As D. That he is
27. ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.
A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test
C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test
28. As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act responsibly.
A. whose B. whom C. which D. when
29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea.
A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view
30. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.
A. with B. to C. by D. for
31. As soon as you ________ that, I’d like you to go to bed.
A. have done B. did C. will do D. will have done
32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on ________ Prime Minister.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. to have been
33. In 1870, ________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices
C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating
34. They’re staying in rented accommodation for the time ________.
A. going B. making C. doing D. being
35. “I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Sunday afternoon”. - “________”
A. OK, what time? B. You’re kidding C. I know D. I’m sure
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points).
36. We found it ____________ (thrill) to your wonderful news.
37. He left the room without any ____________ (explain).
38. He didn’t feel happy because he worked ____________ (success).
39. Many people expressed ____________ (disagree) with the whole idea.
40. There was a ____________ (wide) dissatisfaction with the government’s policies.
41. Her health has ____________ (bad) considerably since we last saw her.
42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart diseases and other ____________ (sick).
43. He was ____________ (information) of the consequences in advance.
44. I was kept ____________ (wake) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above.
45. This road is so bad that it needs ____________ (surface).
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5 points).
46. Last week unless my mother had had enough money, she would have bought that toy for me.
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5. Đề số 5
Part 1: Phonology
I. Choose the word who underlined part s pronounced differently from that of the others in each group. (10pts)
1. A. polio B. police C. polite D. pollute
2. A. chaos B. character C. charity D. chord
3. A. says B. plays C. days D. raise
4. A. southern B. mathematics C. breath D. truth
5. A. disguise B. cruise C. bruise D. suit
6. A. hour B. our C. pour D. sour
7. A. sergeant B. servant C. service D. servile
8. A. promised B. reduced C. released D. relieved
9. A. apology B. classify C. testify D. verify
10. A. beloved B. naked C. ploughed D. learned
II. Choose the word with the different stress pattern. (10 pts)
11.A. because B. method C. standard D. wooden
12. A. American B. industrious C. property D. variation
13. A. eventual B. community C. infected D. militarism
14. A. refuge B. electronic C. education D. deficiency
15. A. assassinate B. equality C. intelligence D. understanding
16. A. ashtray B. music C. serve D. temper
17. A. challenging B. consultant C. purity D. wholesaler
18. A. assemble B. glorious C. majestic D. together
19. A. antonym B. consequence C. phenomenon D. ingot
20.A. destination B. enthusiast C. hallucinate D. technology
Part 2: Vocabulary
Choose the best answer (10 pts)
1. If Harold………….with his piano playing, he could eventually reach concert standard.
A. sustains B. perseveres C. maintains D. survives
2. Anna is a very nervous child and she’s very………………….of strangers.
A. terrified B. frightened C. petrified D. horrified
3. The government is thinking of bringing………..a law to make it compulsory for cyclists to wear crash helmets.
A. on B. up C. in D. round
4. I love the painting of an ald man. He has such a beautiful……………smile.
A. childhood B. childish C. childless D. childlike
5. She caught a ……………………of the thief as he made his get- away.
A. glance B. sight C. glimpse D. flash
6. It was a service…………..I will be enternally grateful.
A. to which B. for which C. to whom D. for whom
7. Frank has a house in the ………………..
A. outskirts B. edges C. limits D. suburds
8. The film lasted every three hours with…………….of 15 minutes between part one and part two.
A. a pause B. an interruption C. an interval D. a stop
9. The person who writes symphonies or concertos is a ……………..
A. composer B. conductor C. pianist D. playwright
10. Is it far to Stambord? It’s only………………..from here.
A. stone’s cut B. bird’s eye view
C. short cut D. step in the right direction
Part 3: Grammar and stuctures.
I. Finish each of the following sentences so that it meaning exactly the sentence above it. (10 pts)
1.Andrew is the most generous person I have ever met.
I’ve yet……………………………………………………………………………
2. Far more people live to entertainment age in Britain than in Philipines.
Not……………………………………………………………………………….
3. His father is going to fix the ball for him tomorrow.
He is going …………………………………………………………………………
4. She never seems to succeed eventhough she studies much.
Much…………………………………………………………………………………
5. I nevr thought that I would win a prize.
It had…………………………………………………………………………………
6. I would love to be rich and famous.
If……………………………………………………………………………………...
7. Simon hadn’t expected that he would feel so weak after the operation.
The operation left…………………………………………………………………….
8. They secretly declared independence two days ago.
A secret………………………………………………………………………………
9. Juliet simply couldn’t wait for his return.
Juliet could…………………………………………………………………………...
10. I don’t intend to apologize to either of them.
I have………………………………………………………………………………...
II. Fill in each gap with the correct form of the word in brackets.(10 pts)
1. Tax exemption only applies to those with (resident) ……..status.
2. His busy schedule made him completely (access)………………..to his students.
3. He works for UNESCO in a purely (advice)…………………role.
4. The sun and the moon are often (person)…………………in poetry.
5. Now there is every(like)………………………………..that the residents will have a private plane in their garage.
6. They told me the museum was open today but I was obviously (inform)……
7. Do you think these children are (nourish)………………..? They look very thin.
8. Have you read the latest (reveal)……………….about Madonna’s private life?
9. We try to ensure the (be)…………….of our employees.
10. Tourists forget their (conceive)………ideas as soon as thay visit our country.
III.Choose the best answer.(10 pts)
1.I’d rather you………..at my party last night.
A. be B. were C. had been D. have been
2. …….will Mr Forbes be able to regain control of the company.
A. With hard work B. In spite of his hard work
C. Only if he works hardly D. Only with of his hard work
3. Barbara didn’t mention…………about her progress report at work, but I’m sure she is.
A. concerning B. to concern
C. being concerned D. to be concerned
4. Snow and rain………of nature.
A. are phenomenon B. are phenomena
C. is phenomena D. is phenomenon
5. Everyone was going away on holiday this week,………………..?
A. wasn’t it B. wasn’t be C. weren’t they D. wasn’t she
6…………….my key, I wasn’t able to bet into the room.
- Losing B. I had lost C. I lost D. Having lost
7. It’s no good pretending. You’ve got to…………………..reality.
A. come up to B. face up to
C. come up with D. get round to
8.I haven’t …………………………..decided where to go on holiday this year.
A. still B. yet C. already D. then
9. “Why are you angry at Bob?”
- “I don’t like it when he makes jokes………my expense.”
A. for B. on C. at D. to
10. A car……………many different pars.
A. is made B. is made up of
C. is made of D. makes up of
Part 4: Reading comprehension
A.Choose from the phrasesA-H the one which fits each gap. (10 pts)
Scientists estimate that at the beginning of 20th century 100,000 tigers flourished throughout Asia, from estern Russia and Korea through eastern and southern China, Southest Asia, the Indian subcontinient, and into Pakistan. At the start of the 21st century only 5,000 to 7,000 tigers lived (1)…………
Cambodia, China, India, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, North Korea, Russia, Sumatra, Thailand, and Vietnam. Tigers are now extinctin Bali, Java, and around the Caspian Sea, and nearly so in Chinaand North Korea, Less than 20 percent of today’s tiger habiat is located (2)……………………, which means that the majority of the areas where tigers live could be lost to others uses, such as agriculture or urbanization.
Tigers are territorial- they live alone (3)…………..jother tigers. The ideal tiger territory is a large forested area with rich vegetation for cover, plentiful water to drink and cool off in, and urbudant deer, swine, and other large mammals to eat. With these three esential, tigers can thrive (4)…………, tropical rain forests in Sumatra and Southest Asia; cool oak and pine forest in the Amur River Valley in far eastern Russia; tall grass jungles (5)………in Bamngladesh; and mountain slopes in Bhutan.
A.in no more than a hundred species left
B.in the wild in just 14 Asian countries: Bangladesh, Bhutan.
C. in will life preserves which are built
D. in large areas that they defend from
E. in national parks or other protected areas
F. in India and Nepal; coastal mangrove forests
G. in deverse habiats and climates including
H. in the surburbs or on the outskirts of the city
II. read the passage and answer the questions. (10 pts)
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of servival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen before take off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten you seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the realisemechanism of your belt operates. During takeoffs and landings, you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before takeoff you should locate the nearest exit and a alternative exit and count the rows of seats between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary.
In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until your plane comes to complete stop. If smoke is present in the carbin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins, towels or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as posible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slices before they are in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage.
1.What is the main topic of the passage?
2. According to experts, when are travelers urged to read and listen to safety instructions?
3. Which exits should an airline passenger locate before takeoff?
4. Find out a word which is synonym with the word “evacuate” in the passage.
5. What does the paragraph following the passage most probably discus?
ĐÁP ÁN
Part 1: Phonology
I.(10 pts)
1.A 2. C 3. A 4.A 5. A
6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10.C
II.(10 pts)
11.A 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. D
16. C 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. A
Part 2: Vocabulary
I.(10 pts)
1.B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. C
6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10.A
II. (20 pts)
1.survival 2. distributed 3. exist 4. sources
5. increasing 6. developing 7. discharged 8. agriculture 9. conservation 10. inefficient
Part 3: Grammar and structure
I.(10 pts)
1. I’ve yet to meet anyone who is more generous than Andrew.
2. Not as many people live to retirement age in the Philipines as in Britain.
3. he is going to have his father fix the ball tomorrow.
4. Much as she studies, she never seems to succeed.
5. It had never crossed my mind that I’d win a prize.
6. If only I were rich and famous.
7. The operation of independence was made 2 days ago.
8. A secret declaration left Simon feeling weaker than he had expected.
9. Juliet could only long for his return.
10. I have no intention of apologizing to either of them.
II.(10 pts)
1.C 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. C
6. A 7. B 8. B 9. A 10.B
Part 4: Reading comprehension
I.(10 pts)
1.B 2. E 3. D 4. G 5. F
II. (10 pts)
Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival.
2. before takeoff
3. The two closest to the passenger’s seat.
4. vacate
5. How to preceed once you are away from the aircraft.
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- Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 10 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Trần Văn Thành
- Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 10 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Tân Phong
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