BÀI TẬP KIỂM TRA UNITS 10-16 TIẾNG ANH 12 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN
TEST OF UNIT 10
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions
1. A. low B. cow C. fold D. show
2. A. cost B. hot C. most D. post
3. A. wall B. course C. thought D. what
4. A. any B. many C. parrot D. said
5. A. style B. type C. classify D. sympathy
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option to fill each of the following blanks
6. Almost half of turtles and tortoises are known to be threatened with ______ .
A. extinct B. extinction C. extinctive D. extinctly
7. The wetland is _______ to a large variety of wildlife
A. land B. accommodation C. house D. home
8. This also means that the __________ of many animals are being destroyed.
A. ways of life B. natural habitats C. land D. species
9. Humans depend on species diversity to provide food, clean air and water and fertile soil for agriculture.
A. destruction B. contamination C. fertilizer D. variety
10. Life on Earth is disappearing fast and will continue to do so unless urgent action is taken.
A. vanishing B. damaging C. polluting D. destroying
11. Keep quiet. You ______ talk so loudly in here. Everybody is working.
A. may B. must C. might D. mustn’t
12. John is not at home. He _______ go somewhere with Daisy. I am not sure.
A. might B. will C. must D. should
13. ________ I have a day off tomorrow? – Of course not. We have a lot of things to do.
A. Must B. Will C. May D. Need
14. Do you mind if I borrow a chair? - ____________. Do you only need one?
A. I’m sorry B. Yes, I do C. Yes, I would D. Not at all
15. ________ I be here by 6 o’clock? – No, you ________.
A. Shall/mightn’t B. Must/needn’t C. Will/mayn’t D. Might/won’t
16. If I had gone white water rafting with my friends, I _______ down the Colorado River right now.
A. should have floated B. must be floating
C. would be floating D. would have been floating
17. You ________ touch that switch, whatever you do.
A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. won’t D. wouldn’t
18. Susan ______ hear the speaker because the crowd was cheering so loudly.
A. mustn’t B. couldn’t C. can’t D. needn’t
19. You ________ be rich to be a success. Some of the most successful people I know haven’t got a penny to their name.
A. needn’t B. couldn’t C. mayn’t D. mustn’t
20. – Oh no! I completely forgot we were supposed to pick Jenny up at the air port this morning.
- She _______ there waiting for us.
A. needn’t sit B. might still sit C. must still be sitting D. should have sat
21. Jane often wears beautiful clothes. She ______ be very rich.
A. must B. could C. might D. needn’t
22. Do you mind if we schedule the meeting for 11 o’clock? – Well, actually I _______ earlier.
A. should prefer it will be B. am preferring it to be
C. will prefer it D. would prefer it to be
23. Our new flat is on a very busy street. I expect we’ll ________ the noise, but at the moment it’s very disturbing.
A. use to B. get used to C. be used D. used to
24. You haven’t eaten anything since yesterday afternoon. You ________ be really hungry! “I am”
A. might B. will C. can D. must
25. “This movie is boring and too violent,” “I agree. ________ leave?”
A. Will we B. why don’t we C. must we D. would we
III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction
26. The music on a compact disk (CD) is record by laser.
A B C D
27. It will be said that a million years ago there were a lot more species of animal than there are now.
A B C D
28. Mark doesn’t needs to finish his report today. He can do it at the weekend.
A B C D
29. You mustn’t wear your best clothes. You can wear whatever you like.
A B C D
30. You mustn’t take flowers to your hostess if you don’t want to.
A B C D
IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 31 to 35
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (31) ________ . Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become (32) _______ if we do not make an effort to protect them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots are caught (33) _______, that their habitats – the place where they live – is disappearing. More land is used for farms, for house and industry and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment and (34) _______ wildlife. The most successful animals on Earth, human being, will soon be the only ones (35) ____ unless we can solve this problem.
31. A. danger B. threat C. problem D. vanishing
32. A. disappeared B. vanished C. empty D. extinct
33. A. lively B. alive C. for life D. for living
34. A. spoil B. harm C. would D. wrong
35. A. left B. over C. staying D. survived
V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from36.to 40
Everybody loves the giant panda. That was clear from enthusiasm welcome New Yorkers gave to Ling Ling and Yong Yong when they arrive at the Bronx zoo in May. The cuddy black and white pair were on loan for six months from China’s Beijing Zoo, and it was estimated that more than one million people visited them in New York before they left for a zoo in Tampa, Florida in early November.
The giant panda, unfortunately, is an endangered species. Only about 700 are left in the wild, most of them living on reserves in China’s Sichua Province. Despite conservation efforts on the part of the Chinese government and scientist worldwide, the population continues to decline as human beings cut down bamboo, the panda’s primary food.
Can the panda be saved? Of course. All it need is bamboo and peace. Every panda population should have at least two bamboo species available to lessen the impact of die off. Bamboo at low elevations must be preserved or replanted. Existing reserves need to be expanded and new reserves created. Poaching must be controlled. Zoos must improve captive breeding to provide move pandas for their original home.
China’s Ministry of Forestry and the World Wildlife Fund are continuing their collaborative effort on the panda’s behalf, guided by the spirit of their Joint the agreement that needs: “The giant panda is not only the precious property of the China people, but also a precious natural heritage of concern to people all over the world.”
36. China’s Beijing zoo ______________ .
A. lent Ling Ling and Yong Yong to Bronx zoo.
B. borrowed Ling Ling and Yong Yong from Bronx zoo in New York.
C. gave two pandas to a zoo in Tampa, Florida in early November.
D. is visited by more than 1 million people in six months.
37. Why is the giant panda an endangered species?
A. Because reserves in China’s Sichuan Province are demolished.
B. Because some bamboo species die out.
C. Because they have not enough food to eat.
D. Because of the lack of conservation effort.
38. What should human beings do to help save pandas?
A. We should improve captive breeding.
B. We should plant two bamboo species for each panda.
C. We should preserve and replant bamboo at low elevation.
D. We should improve reserves, plant bamboo, and control poaching.
39. Zoos are ____________________ .
A. to blame foe contributing to the extinction of pandas.
B. useful in breeding more pandas to send back to the wild.
C. good places for bamboo at low elevations.
D. better for pandas than their original home.
40. The spirit of the Joint agreement between China’s Ministry of Forestry and the World Wildlife Fund about pandas is based on ___________ .
A. their collaborative effort.
B. the need to save pandas, the precious property of the Chinese people.
C. the fact that the panda is a natural heritage of China and the whole world.
D. saving pandas from efforts of people all over the world
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentences which is closest in meaning to the given one.
41. “You should have finished the report by now”, the boss said to his secretary.
A. the boss reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.
B. The boss advised his secretary to finish the report on time.
C. The boss scolded his secretary for not finishing the report on time.
D. The boss suggested his secretary should have finished the report.
42. Perhaps the others are looking for us now.
A. The others must be looking for us now.
B. The others might be looking for us now.
C. The others should be looking for us now.
D. The others have to be looking for us now.
43. The best decision would have been for you to accept the offer.
A. You ought to have accepted the offer. B. You must have accepted the offer.
C. You need have accepted the offer. D. You could have accepted the offer.
44. It is rarely necessary to ask Suzanne to tidy her room.
A. Suzanne dislikes to be ask to tidy her room.
B. There is no need for Suzanne to tidy her room.
C. Suzanne mustn’t be asked to tidy her room.
D. Suzanne rarely has to be asked to tidy her room.
45. It’s obvious that the child has run away.
A. The child must have run away. B. The child might have run away.
C. The child need have run away. D. The child could have run away.
46. Peter emphasized the importance of being thoughtful toward one another.
A. Peter said that people should not talk too much.
B. Peter said that people should not be too serious.
C. Peter said that people should consider the feelings of others.
D. Peter said that people should discuss thoughtful topics.
47. You needn’t have waited for them
A. You needn’t wait for them. B. You didn’t have to wait for them.
C. They didn’t expect you to wait for them. D. You didn’t need to wait for them.
48 Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic.
B. Every student must write an essay on the topic.
C. They require every student write an essay on the topic.
D. Every student should write an essay on the topic.
49. You must do it now, or never.
A. If you don’t do it now, you’ll never do it. B. Do it now, and then never again.
C. You’ll never do it again if you do it now. D. If you don’t do it now, you can do it later.
50. Sue is too slow to understand what you might say.
A. Sue is not enough quick to understand what you might say.
B. What you might say, Sue can understand slowly.
C. Sue is so slow to understand what you might say
D. So slow is Sue that she can’t understand what you might say.
TEST OF UNIT 11
I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
Question 1. A. dips B. lives C. digests D. thanks
Question 2. A. athletics B. thought C. enthusiast D. themselves
Question 3. A. swallowed B. replaced C. described D. dramatized
Question 4. A. reunite B. survive C. wilderness D. digest
II. Choose the word whose stressed syllable is in a different position from the others.
Question 5. A. magazine B. character C. quality D. agency
Question 6. A. difficulty B. entertainment C. television D. fascinating
Question 7. A. swallow B. digest C. happen D. offer
III. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences.
Question 8. Books are still a cheap way to get __________ and entertainment.
A. inform B. information C. informative D. informatively
Question 9. Whenever he picks up a book, he reads bits here and there or in other words he _____ .
A. digests B. tastes C. chews D. swallows
Question 10. Books are a wonderful source of __________ and pleasure.
A. know B. knowing C. knowledgeable D. knowledge
Question 11. A ____ is a type of book that is based on imagined scientific discoveries of the future.
A. novel B. science fiction book C. fiction book D. romance
Question 12. I feel much more __________ when I read an interesting book..
A. relaxed B. relaxing C. relax D. to relax
Question 13. A novel is a story long enough to fill a complete book, in which the characters and events are usually __________ .
A. imagine B. imaginary C. imagination D. imaginatively
Question 14.The journey was the most difficult for him, but __________ he found the strength to make it.
A. amaze B. amazing C. amazingly D. amazement
Question 15. Sue: “I love comic books.” Alice: “__________.”
A. I do, too B. No, I won’t C. Yes, I like it D. Neither do I
Question 16. Mary: “I’ve got an interview for a job today.” Peter: “__________.”
A. Thank you. B. The same to you C. Good luck D. See you
Question 17 . A: I’m not sure about this soup. It tastes like something’s missing.
B:_________ It tastes fine to me.
A. You’re right B. Oh, I don’t know
C. I don’t think so D. I couldn’t agree more
Question 18. Paula wishes she __________ more time to spend on reading books.
A. had B. has C. has had D. will have
Question 19. I can’t decide now. I need __________ time to think about it.
- most B. few C. many D. a little
Question 20. A: What is he like? B: __________.
A. He is very brave B. He likes reading books
C. Certainly, very good D. All right
Question 21. Your bill __________ before you leave the hotel.
A. should pay B. will pay C. should be paid D. must be paying
Question 22. The application forms __________ before March 5th, 2011.
A. must submit B. must be submitted
C. must have submitted D. must be submitting
Question 23. Ellen: “__________ ?” Tom: “He is tall and thin with blue eyes.”
A. What does John look like B. How is John
C. How is John doing D. Who does John look like
IV. Identify the underlined word or phrase that must be changed to make the sentences correct.
Question 24.The experiment were conducted by Dr. Adams last week was unsuccessful, wasn’t it?
A B C D
Question 25. Neil Postman, an author of some great books, pointed out that reading
A B
teaches us to think in a logically connected way, and cultivating a sustained attention span.
C D
Question 26. Reading cannot make your life longer, but reading really makes your life
A B C
more thicker.
D
Question 27. It is really sad how much people have the misconception that reading is boring.
A B C D
Question 28. Have you ever read "Oliver Twist", an interesting novel to write by Charles Dickens?
A B C D
Question 29. Read the book careful and you can find the information you need.
A B C D
Question 30. Books are still a cheap way to get informations and entertainment, and you
A B C D
can keep a book forever.
V. Choose one sentence that has the same meaning as the original one.
Question 31. It's time we left for the disco.
A. We may leave for the disco now. B. We needn't leave for the disco now.
C. We should leave for the disco now. D. We must have left for the disco now.
Question 32. My car keys are possibly in the kitchen.
A. My car keys should be put in the kitchen.
B. My car keys cannot be in the kitchen.
C. I do not know whether my car keys are in the kitchen.
D. My car keys might be in the kitchen.
Question 33. You should keep the flowers in a warm sunny place.
A. The flowers should be kept in a warm sunny place.
B. The flowers should keep in a warm sunny place.
C. The flowers in a warm sunny place should be kept.
D. The flowers in a warm sunny place should keep.
Question 34. Somebody might have stolen your car.
A. Somebody might have been stolen your car.
B. Your car might be stolen.
C. Your car might have been stolen by somebody.
D. Your car might have been stolen.
VI. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.
Question 35. In order to go abroad, __________.
A. a medical report must present B. one must present a medical report
C. a medical report must be presented D. one must be presented a medical report
Question 36. Successful salespeople know their products thoroughly __________ .
A. and understand the needs of the market properly
B. but the needs of the market are understood properly
C. so understanding the needs of the market
D. and the needs of the market understood
Question 37. In many ways, __________ .
A. riding a bicycle is similar to the driving of a car
B. riding a bicycle is similar when you drive a car
C. the riding of a bicycle is similar to when driving a car
D. riding a bicycle is similar to driving a car
VII. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer after each question.
Langston Hughes was one of the greatest American writers of the twentieth century. He was born in Joplin, Missouri, and moved to Cleveland at the age of fourteen. Four years later he went to Mexico and spent one year there before attending Columbia University in New York. For a few years after that he roamed the world as a seaman, visiting ports around the world and writing some poetry. He returned to the United States and attended Lincoln University, where he won the Writer Bynner Prize for undergraduate poetry. After graduating in 1928, he traveled to Spain and to Russia. His best novels include “Not Without Laughter” and “The Big Sea”. He wrote an autobiography in 1956 and also published his collections of poetry then. A man of many talents, Hughes is one of the most accomplished writers in American literature history.
Question 38. Langston Hughes was _____ years old when he went to Mexico.
A. 14 B. 16 C. 20 D. 18
Question 39. When were his collections of poetry published?
A. in 1958 B. in 1956 C. in 1928 D. in 1960
Question 40. Where did he win the Writer Bynner Prize for undergraduate poetry?
A. Columbia University B. Lincoln University C. Spain D. Russia
Question 41. Where was Langston Hughes born?
A. Columbia B. Missouri C. New York D. Cleveland
Question 42. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Langston Hughes used to travel by ship to many ports around the world.
B. Langston Hughes attended Columbia University in New York at fourteen.
C. “The Big Sea” is one of Langston Hughes’ best novels.
D. Langston Hughes had lived in Mexico for a year before he left for New York.
VIII. Read the passage carefully then choose the best answer to complete each blank.
Can you imagine a deaf woman writing stories about a war? Well, Laura Redden Searing did this. Moreover, she went to foreign countries to write stories. She wrote stories in Europe. She wrote poems, too. Her poems were published in many magazines. She wrote enough poems to fill three (43) __________ . Laura was born in Maryland. Her family moved to Missouri when she was very young. She was very (44) __________ when she was 11 years old. Because of this, she lost her hearing. She went to the Missouri School for the Deaf. Laura was 19 years old when she went to work for a newspaper. She wrote about people, places, and art. In 1859, most women were wives and mothers. They did not work outside the (45) __________; otherwise, their husbands would be angry. Due to this feeling, Laura used a man’s name when she wrote her stories. She called herself Howard Glyndon. She thought that (46) __________ she used a man’s name, people would be hostile since they did not think that women should write for newspapers. However, she would have no trouble provided that people did not (47) __________ she was a woman. Over 100 years ago, some Southern states decided to secede from the United States. They (48) __________ to leave the Union. This caused a war called the Civil War. When the Civil War (49) __________, Missouri remained in the Union. Laura began to write about the Union. One of her poems, “Belle Missouri”, became a (50) __________ for the Union soldiers in Missouri. Finally, Laura went to Washington, D.C to write about the war.
Question 43. A. books B. pages C. minutes D. postcards
Question 44. A. quiet B. upset C. active D. ill
Question 45. A. home B. office C. city D. law
Question 46. A. if B. unless C. when D. as if
Question 47. A. forget B. care C. deny D. know
Question 48. A. refused B. failed C. pretended D. voted
Question 49. A. broke out B. broke off C. broke into D. broke on
Question 50. A. mystery B. joke C. song D. target
TEST OF UNIT 12
I-PHONETICS
A. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in each line
Question 1. A. consultant B. photographer C. ambitious D. delicate
Question 2. A. miraculous B. eject C. typhoon D. abstract
Question 3. A. criminal B. canoeing C.Character D. vertical
Question 4. A. opponent B. mischievous C. family D. leftovers
B. Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words.
Question 5. A. bats B. speaks C. baths D. nurses
Question 6. A. garage B. shortage C. courage D. luggage
Question 7. A. walked B. explained C. helped D. missed
Question 8. A. church B. children C. chemistry D. chair
II- VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR NOTES
Choose A, B, C or D that best completes the unfinished sentence.
Question 9. If he isn’t Spanish, what ___________is he?
A. nation B. international C. nationality D. national
Question 10. How wide is this street? – “_______________”
A. It’s ten yards wide B. It’s wide ten yards
C. It’s in wide ten yards D. It’s ten yards in wide
Question 11. A water polo cap is used to _____ the players’ head and to identify them.
A. tie B. penalize C. protect D. move
Question 12. I have never taken part in any water sports __________ I cannot swim.
A. because B. because of C. due to D. although
Question 13. Many people do not like scuba diving __________.
A. because its danger B. because of it is danger
C. because it is dangerous D. due to it is dangerous
Question 14. What kind of sport one chooses to play mostly depends _________his preference and health.
A. with B. for C. in D. on
Question 15. In water polo game, only the goalie can hold the ball _______ two hands.
A. at B. in C. with D. from
Question 16. They are going to __________ the pool to 1.8 meter.
A. deep B. depth C. deepen D. deeply
Question 17. The referee had no hesitation in awarding the visiting team a __________.
A. penalty B. penalize C. penal D. penalization
Question 18. __________ is a sport in which you move along the surface of the sea or a lake on a long narrow board with a sail on it.
A. Water polo B. Diving C. Windsurfing D. Scuba diving
Question 19. I __________ think that scuba diving is more of danger than adventure.
A. person B. personal C. personally D. personalize
Question 20. The referee’s __________ is the most important in any sport competition.
A. decide B. decisive C. decision D. decider
Question 21. The main task of a defender in a sport game is to __________ the opponents from scoring.
A. prevent B. preventing C. prevention D. preventable
Question 22. Brenda: “Do you think it will rain? Carol: “Oh!________.”
A. I hope not B. I don’t hope so C. I don’t hope D. It’s hopeless
Question 23. Harry: ‘ Thanks for your help, Judy.’ Judy: ‘________.’
A. With all my heart B. Never remind me
C. It’s my pleasure D. Wish you
Question 24. The more goals the players _______, the more exciting the match became.
A. marked B. made C. scored D. sprinted
Question 25. Ann: Do you think you’ll get the job? Mary:________
A. I know so B. Well, I hope so C. I think not D. Yes, that’s right
Question 26. Hung: ‘ Thank you very much for a lovely party.’ Hoa: ‘________.’
A. You are welcome B. Have a good day C. Thanks D. Cheers
Question 27: Dora: “What’s your name?” Helen: “________”
A. OK. B. Forgive me. C. Really? D. Pardon?
Question 28: We are not used________ on the left.
A. driving B. to driving C. to be driven D. to drive
Question 29: Peter ________ at the moment, so he can’t answer the telephone.
A. works B. worked C. is working D. has worked
Question 30: There are________ planets in the universe that we cannot count them.
A. such B. so many C. so D. so much
III- READING COMPREHENSION
A. Read the following passage. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete the passage.
Many people love boats .Going out on the water (31) __________ a warm summer day is a lot of fun. (32) __________, different people like different kinds of boats. Two of the most popular kinds of boats are sailboats and speedboats. Sailboats use the (33) __________ to give them power. They only have small engines. In contrast, speedboats have large engines and go very fast. Furthermore, speedboats are usually not as (34) __________ as sailboats. Speedboats are small so that they can go fast. Sailboats, on the other hand, are big so that they are more comfortable.(35) __________ sailboats can travel into the ocean ,but this would be very dangerous in a speedboat. You can only use most speedboats on rivers and lakes.
Question 31. A. at B. on C. in D. while
Question 32. A. However B. Although C. Because D. Unless
Question 33. A. water B. speeds C. weather D. wind
Question 34. A. small B. fast C. warm D. big
Question 35. A. Unfortunately B. At first C. In addition D. Except for
B. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
Basketball was invented by James Naismith in 1891. Naismith wanted to make a game that could be played indoors. He remembered a game he used to play in his childhood. He developed that game to make basketball.
Basketball is played on a basketball court. There is a backboard with an iron basket at each end of the court. The basket is 10 feet high. The only other equipment is a basketball.
Naismith made 13 rules to guide the game. There are 5 people on each team .Basketball players must dribble the ball. The goal of this game is to put the ball into the other team’s basket and to earn points. The team with the most points wins the game.
Basketball is now very popular all over the world. America has very good teams in the National Basketball Association (NBA).
Question 36. The word “indoors” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________ .
A. at the door B. inside a building
C. out of the door D. through the door
Question 37. The word “dribble” in paragraph 3 could be replaced by __________.
A. move B. catch C. stop D. throw
Question 38. The purpose James Naismith invented basketball was __________
A. to remember his childhood.
B. to make a game that could be played indoors.
C. to develop it into a popular game throughout the word.
D. to make 13 rules to guide the game.
Question 39. The author’s main purpose in paragraph 3 is __________
A. to describe how basketball is played.
B. to tell the history of basketball .
C. to teach people how to play basketball .
D. to show how popular basketball is now.
Question 40. All of the following are true about basketball EXCEPT
A. Basketball is enjoyed everywhere in the world.
B. There are 13 rules to follow when playing basketball.
C. The equipment of the basketball game is a court and a basketball.
D. All nations have teams in the National Basketball.
IV- WRITING
A. Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one.
Question 41. The gate is closed to stop the children running into the road.
A. The gate is so closed that the children cannot run into the road.
B. The gate is closed so that the children cannot run into the road.
C. The gate is closed for the children not running into the road.
D. The gate is closed so as the children cannot run into the road.
Question 42. Jack has stopped writing letters to Jill.
A. Jack has no longer stopped writing to Jill
B. Jack has never written letters to Jill before.
C. Jack used to write letters to Jill.
D. Jack stopped writing letters when Jill came.
Question 43. They moved to this suburb in 1997.
A. They have lived in this suburb since 1997
B. They lived in this suburb in 1997.
C. They have lived in this suburb before.
D. They have moved to this suburb since 1997.
Question 44. Even though they were late, they didn’t hurry.
A. In spite that they were late, they didn’t hurry.
B. Despite being late, they didn’t hurry.
C. Because of being late, they were in a hurry.
D. They were in a hurry because they were late.
Question 45. The roads were slippery because it snowed heavily.
A. It snowed too heavily to make the roads slippery.
B. The heavy snow prevented the roads from-being slippery.
C. Thanks to the slip of the roads, it snowed heavily.
D. The heavy snow made the roads slippery.
C. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.
Question 46. The sport become very popular in Europe and by the late 70's there was
A B C
windsurfing fever in Europe with one in every three households having a sailboard.
D
Question 47. The first world championship of windsurfing held in 1973. Windsurfing
A B C
first became an Olympic sport in 1984 for men and 1992 for women.
D
Question 48. These televisions are all too expensive for we to buy at this time.
A B C D
Question 49. After she had bought himself a new car, she sold her bicycle.
A B C D
Question 50. After George had returned to his house, he was reading a book.
A B C D
TEST OF UNIT 13
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option to fill each of the following blanks.
1. The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place.
A. organized B. impressed C. participated D. defended
2. Vietnam’s successful hosting of the 22nd SEA Games is considered a/ an _____ example for other countries to follow, particularly in honesty, consistence and organizing method.
A. festival B. peaceful C. energetic D. outstanding
3. ___________ is the activity of doing special exercises regularly in order to make your muscles grow bigger.
A. Wrestling B. Bodybuilding C. Weightlifting D. Badminton
4. The athlete had tried his best to ______ his SEA Games title and records.
A. carry B. perform C. defend D. support
5. They told me he had __________a gold medal in wushu.
A. won B. scored C. gained D. got
6. Singapore and Vietnam had ________who were awarded the Most Outstanding Athlete titles in the Swimming and Shooting events.
A. participates B. participations C. participants D. participated
7. The SEA Games ________every two years, with 11 countries in Southeast Asia participating.
A. comes down B. sets up C. takes place D. brings about
8. He spent a year in India and loves spicy food. ___________ the food is, ________ he likes it.
A. The hotter / the more and more B. The hotter / the more
C. The more and more hot/ the more D. The hottest / the most
9. It gets ___________ to understand what the professor has explained.
A. the more difficult B. more difficult than
C. difficult more and more D. more and more difficult
10. I feel ______________ I did yesterday
A. much more tired than B. many more tired than
C. as many tired as D. as more tired as
11. People should eat _______ and do ______ to reduce the risk of heart disease.
A. less fat/ more exercise B. less and less fat / the more exercise
C. the less fat / the more exercise D. fatter / more exercise
12. The Mekong Delta is _____________ deltas in Vietnam.
A. the largest of the two B. the more larger of the two
C. one of the two largest D. one of the two larger
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentences which is closest in meaning to the given one.
13. No one in the team can play better than John.
A. John plays well but the others play better.
B. John as well as other players of the team plays very well.
C. Everyone in the team, but John, plays well.
D. John is the best player of the team.
14. He only feels happy whenever he does not have much work to do.
A. The more he works, the happier he feels.
B. The less he works, the happier he feels.
C. His work makes him feel happy.
D. He feels happier and happier with his work.
15. I have never met anyone who is more intelligent than Mr Ba.
A. Mr Ba is the most intelligent man I have ever met.
B. The more I meet Mr Ba, the more intelligent he seems to be.
C. Mr Ba is the most intelligent man in the world.
D. Nobody in the world is as intelligent as Mr Ba.
16. If you practise harder you will have better result.
A. The harder you practise, the better results you will have.
B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have.
C. The hardest you practise, the most results you will have.
D. The harder you practise, the best results you will have.
17. He tries to practise English every day so he can speak English more fluently now.
A. The more he practises English, the more he can speak English.
B. The more he practises English, the more fluently he can speak it.
C. The more he tries to practise English, the most fluently he can speak it.
D. He tries to practise English every day, but he finds it difficult to speak English
Mark the letter A, B, C or to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
18. A. hosted B. impressed C. finished D. watched
19. A. peace B. great C. increase D. team
20. A. player B. nervous C. determine D. term
21. A. host B. who C. gold D. compose
22. A. sports B. enthusiasts C. games D. thanks
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option to fill each of the following blanks.
23. A: “ How about a biscuit?” B: “ ________ . I’m on a diet.”
A. Yes, please B. Yes, thank you C. No, thanks D. It’s OK
24. A: “ Thanks for your help.” B: “ ________ .”
A. You are welcomed B. The same to you
C. Thank you, too D. That’s all right
25. A: “ Is Monday possible for you?” B: “ ________ .”
A. I hope so, too B. I really enjoy meeting you
C. Thank you D. Yes, that’s fine
26. Customer: “ Waiter! I’d like the menu, please.” Waiter: “ ________ .”
A. But I don’t like B. Here you are, sir
C. Here are you, sir D. Yes, thank you
27. A: “ Congratulations on your success!” B: “ ________ .”
A. Not at all B. All right C. Thank you D. The same to you
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to complete each of the following sentences
28. Their office consisted of four rooms, ____ was used as conference room .
A. the larger of them B. larger of which. C. the largest of which D. the largest
29. At college the work is _____ than the work we did at school , but it is much____.
A. harder- more interesting B. hardest-most interesting
C. harder-most interesting D. more hard- more interesting
30.______ was debated, the more people became involved.
A. The longer the issue B. The longer issue
C. The long issue D. The longest issue
31. Hair color is one of ____ characteristics to be used in identifying people
A. the most obviously B. most obvious
C. obviously the most D. the most obvious
32. In diving competitions, women perform _____ men do.
A. dive the same as B. the same dives as
C. dive the same way as D. the diving is the same
33. The problem seems to be _______.
A. most serious B. more serious than
C. more serious D. more and more serious
34. Petrol is _____ it used to.
A. twice more than expensive B. twice expensive more than
C. twice as expensive as D. more expensive than twice
35. My neighbor is driving me mad. It seems that _____ it is at night ____ he plays his music.
A. the less/ the more loud B. the later/ the louder
C. the later/ the more loudly D. the less/ less
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
36. We admire Lucy for her intelligence, cheerful disposition and she is honest.
A B C D
37. The suitcase seemed to get heavy and heavier as I carried it along the road.
A B C D
38. The more expensive the hotel is, the best the service is.
A B C D
39. I think she's about 20, but in fact she is much elder than she looks.
A B C D
40. As I waited for the interview, I became much and more nervous.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 41 to 45
25th SEA Games Vientiane Laos
The next best thing that ever happened in living memory is that Laos has become member of ASEAN. Lao youth now have (1) ________ to freely roam around surround countries which vastly differ from Laos itself in wealth or culture. Hopefully as they travel they bring home plenty of good ideas to develop.
As member of ASEAN, Laos was given an opportunity to host SEA Games for the very first time. A week after National Day is 2nd of December, SEA Games will (2) ________ commence. Thanks to all nations which have been helping in making the biggest event to be held in Laos happen.
In less than five years rice fields have transformed into world class sport complex ever built in Laos to host the 25th SEA Games. Located approximately 15 kilometres from Vientiane Capital, many (3) ________ of Laotians and visitors will get to enjoy the stadium as ASEAN sport stars grace the arena.
There is certainly an edge of excitement in the air; way up in the sky as SEA Games is coming so close. Lao people (4) ________ all athletes, coaches, administrators and other officials with their opened arms and hearts. As a Laos born person, I am so proud and welcome!
There will always be challenge anywhere. Lao people will do the best they can. Thanks to those marvellous group of volunteers who will contribute to spectacular Opening & Closing (5) ________. And of course all of those volunteers who will take part in helping visitors and tourists with general knowledge and information about the places they are visiting. They are amazing.
41. A. time B. money C. opportunity D. occasion
42. A. mainly B. officially C. usually D. surely
43. A. generations B. peoples C. citizens D. officers
44. A. greet B. meet C. surprise D. welcome
45. A. Holidays B. Vocations C. Festivals D. Ceremonies
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 47.
The Southeast Asian Games owes its origins to the Southeast Asian Peninsular Games or SEAP Games. On 22 May 1958, delegates from the countries in Southeast Asian peninsula attending the 3rd Asian Games in Tokyo, Japan had a meeting and agreed to establish a sport organization. The SEAP Games was conceptualized by Laung Sukhumnaipradit, then Vice-President of the Thailand Olympic Committee. The proposed rationale was that a regional sports event will help promote cooperation, understanding and relations among countries in the Southeast Asian region.
Thailand, Burma (now Myanmar), Malaya (now Malaysia), Laos, South Vietnam and Cambodia (with Singapore included thereafter) were the founding members. These countries agreed to hold the Games biannually. The SEAP Games Federation Committee was formed.
The first SEAP Games were held in Bangkok from 12–17 December 1959 comprising more than 527 athletes and officials from Thailand, Burma, Malaya (now Malaysia), Singapore, South Vietnam and Laos participating in 12 sports.
At the 8th SEAP Games in 1975, the SEAP Federation considered the inclusion of Indonesia and the Philippines. The two countries were formally admitted in 1977, the same year when SEAP Federation changed their name to Southeast Asian Games Federation (SEAGF), and the games were known as the Southeast Asian Games. Brunei was admitted at the 10th SEA Games in Jakarta, Indonesia, and East Timor at the 22nd SEA Games in Hanoi, Vietnam, etc.
46. Which country hosted the third Asian Games?
- Vietnam B. China C. Japan D. Korea
47. What was Laung Sukhumnaipradit’s attitude towards the SEAP Games?
- to form an idea B. to give money C. to ask for help D. to give up
48. How many countries were the former founding members of the Games?
- 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
49. When were the first SEAP Games held?
- 1958 B. 1959 C. 1975 D. 1977
50. Which SEA Games was Vietnam the host country?
- 19th B. 20th C. 21st D. 22nd
TEST OF UNIT 14
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions:
1. A. symbol B. emergency C. poverty D. qualify
2. A. appalled B. dedicated C. designed D. injured
3. A. society B. delegate C. president D. protection
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of main stress in each of the following questions:
4. A. colleague B. appall C. devote D. victim
5. A. suffering B. president C. protection D. conference
III. Mark the correct option A, B,C or D to fill each of the following blanks :
6. All payments to the ICRC are_______ and are received as donations.
A. volunteer B. voluntary C. voluntarily D. volunteered
7. One of the tasks of the Red Cross is also to support local ____ care projects.
A. health B. healthy C. healthful D. healthily
8. The international Red Cross has about 97 million volunteers whose main ______is to protect human life and health.
A. mission B. experience C. organization D. rule
9. The international Red Cross helps people in need without any discrimination based on ____, race, religion, class or political opinions.
A. national B. nationally C. nationality D. native
10. The AIDS ____ continues to spread around the word. Up to 4,000 people are infected with the HIV virus every single day.
A. treatment B. epidemic C. tsunami D. damage
11. In times of war, the Red Cross is dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war.
A. mounted B. excited C. devoted D. interested
12. During the flood, Army helicopters came and tried to evacuate___ injured.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
13. Go____ this book because it has the information you need.
A. over B. by C. off D. on
14. The passengers had to wait because the plane___ off one hour late.
A. took B. turned C. cut D. made
15. Be careful! The tree is going to fall.
A. Look out B. Look up C. Look on D. Look after
16. They decided to postpone their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
A. take up B. turn round C. put off d do with
17. Frankly speaking, your daughter does not take___ you at all.
A. after B. along C. up D. over
18. She is not really friendly. She does not get on well _____ her classmates.
A. from B. with C. for D. to
19. I would be grateful if you kept the news _____ yourself. Do not tell anyone about it.
A. from B. to C. for D. at
20. I do not use those things any more. You can _____them away.
A. get B. fall C. throw D. make
21. They were late for work because their car _____ down.
A. got B. put C. cut D. broke
22. It took me a very long time to recover from the shock of her death.
A. turn off B. take on C. get over D. keep up with
23. Boy! _____away your toys and go to bed right now.
A. Come B. Lie C. Put D. Sit
24. The music is too loud. Could you turn ______ the volume, please?
A. down B. up C. round D. on
25. The Red Cross gives medical aid and other help to victims of major disasters such as floods, earthquakes, epidemics, and famines.
A. shortage of water B. serious droughts
C. serious shortage of food D. poverty
26. - Could you bring me some water? - _____________.
A. I don’t want to B. Certainly, sir C. Yes, I can D. No, I can’t
27. - How do you do? - ___________ .
A. I’m well. Thank you B. Ok C. Not too bad D. How do you do?
28. Thank you for the nice gift. - ___________ .
A. But do you know how much it costs? B. The same to you.
C. In fact, I myself don’t like it D. I’m glad you like it.
29. - Would you like something to eat?
- ____________ I’m not hungry now.
A. Yes, it is B. Yes, I would C. No, no problem D. No, thanks
30. - Would you like anything else? à “___________”.
A. That’s all. Thank you B. Yes, I like everything
C. Two, please D. Yes, I would
IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction:
31. Among many other program, UNICEF also supports the international Child Rights
A B C D
Information Network.
32. They decided to turn off their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
A B C D
33. The World Health Organization was established in 7 April 1948.
A B C D
34. Remember to take over your shoes when you are in a Japanese house.
A B C D
35. Many people are dying by various types of cancer.
A B C D
V. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one.
36. You can look up this word in the dictionary.
A. There are a lot of words in the dictionary for you to look at.
B. You can find the meaning of this word in the dictionary.
C. The dictionary contains a lot of words except the one you need.
D. You should buy this dictionary to find the word you need.
37. Do you have a good relationship with your neighbours?
A. Are you getting with your neighbours?
B. Are you going along with your neighbours?
C. Are you getting well with your neighbours?
D. Are you getting along with your neighbours?
38. After she had finished her homework, she watched television.
A. Had she finished her homework she would have watched television.
B. As soon as she finished her homework she would have watched television.
C. Before she had watch television she finished her homework.
D. She had finished her homework before she watched television.
39. People say that the price of gold is going up.
A. The price of gold is said going up
B. It was said that the price of gold is going up
C. The price of gold is said to going up
D. The price of gold is said to be going up.
40. The bridge was so low that the lorry couldn’t go under it.
A. It was so low bridge that the lorry couldn’t go under it.
B. The bridge wasn’t high enough for the lorry to go under it.
C. It was such low bridge that the lorry couldn’t go under it.
D. The bridge was too low for the lorry to go under.
VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 41 to 45:
The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that acts as a coordinating authority on international public health. Established on 7 April, 1948, and headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, the agency inherited the mandate and resources of its predecessor, the Health Organization.
The WHO's constitution, states that its objective is "the attainment by all peoples of the highest possible level of health." Its major task is to combat diseases, especially key infectious diseases, and to promote the general health of the people of the world. The WHO also sponsors programs to prevent and treat serious epidemics such as SARS, malaria, and AIDS. The WHO supports the development and distribution of safe and effective vaccines, pharmaceutical diagnostics, and drugs. After over 2 decades of fighting smallpox, the WHO declared in 1980 that the disease had been eradicated - the first disease in history to be eliminated by human effort.
The WHO is nearing success in developing vaccines against malaria and aims to eradicate polio within the next few years. The organization has already endorsed the world's first official HIV/AIDS Tool kit for Zimbabwe making it an international standard. In addition to its work in eradicating disease, the WHO also carries out various health-related campaigns, for example, to boost the consumption of fruits and vegetables worldwide and to discourage tobacco use.
Experts met at the WHO headquarters in Geneva in February, 2007, and reported that their work on pandemic influenza vaccine development had achieved encouraging progress. More than 40 clinic trials have been completed or are ongoing. Most have focused on healthy adults. Some companies, after completing safety analyses in adults, have initiated clinical trials in the elderly and in children. All vaccines so far appear to be safe arid well-tolerated in all age groups tested.
41. The World Health Organization (WHO) _______.
A. works on international public health B. has no relation to the United Nations
C. only takes care of Swiss people D. has no predecessor
42. Which is not mentioned in the second paragraph 'as the tasks of the World Health Organization?
A. to promote the general health of everyone in the world
B. to support pharmaceutical diagnostics, and drugs
C. To combat diseases
D. To supply food for patients.
43. According to the text, which disease has been eradicated?
A. Malaria B. AIDS C. SARS D. Smallpox
44. According to the third paragraph, the World Health Organization ______.
A. has not developed vaccines against malaria yet.
B. doesn’t try to eradicate polio.
C. is not concerned about polio.
D. doesn’t carry out various health-related campaigns.
45. Influenza vaccine _______.
A. has only been used for adults
B. cannot be used for children
C. has appeared to be safe in all age groups tested
D. causes bad effects on children and elderly people
VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 46 to 50:
UNICEF (The United Nations Children’s Fund) is mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to advocate for the (46) _____ of children's rights, to help meet their basic needs and to expand their opportunities to reach their full potential. UNICEF is guided by the Convention on the Rights of the Child and tries to establish children's rights as enduring ethical principles and international standards of (47) _____ towards children. UNICEF (48) _____ that the survival, protection and development of children are universal development. UNICEF mobilizes political will and material (49) _____ to help countries, particularly developing countries, ensure a "first call for children" and to, build their capacity to form appropriate policies and (50) _____ services for children and their families.
46. A. protest B. destruction C. protection D. achievement
47. A. poverty B. behavior C. medicine D. injure
48. A. insists B. devotes C. treats D. mounts
49. A. sources B. mines C. budgets D. funds
50. A. care B. appeal C. supply D. react
TEST OF UNIT 15
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions:
1. A. right B. life C. limit D. childbearing
2. A. glove B. above C. love D. woman
3. A. wife B. who C. two D. power
4. A. believed B. established C. considered D. controlled
5. A. century B. culture C. society D. civilization
Mark the correct option A, B, C or D:
6. It is considered women are suited for________ childbearing and homemaking rather than social activities.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
7. ___________ up! The bus is coming.
A. Wash B. Put C. Wake D. Hurry
8. Because of heavy rain, the game was ___________ for a few days.
A. take out B. put off C. set up D. gotten away
9. Tom: “I think married women should not go to work.”
Cindy: “__________ It’s too boring to be housewives all their lives”.
A. Perhaps, I’m not sure B. I can’t agree with you more
C. That’s right D. I don’t agree
10. Go over that report again before we submit it.
A. Dictate B. Print C. Read carefully D. Type
11. Many women are interested in _________ issues nowadays.
A. politic B. political C. politics D. politician
12. Who is __________ after the department while you are away?
A. getting B. running C. taking D. looking
13. In the past, women were economically _________ on their husbands or fathers.
A. dependent B. reliable C. expected D. demanded
14. Salaries have not ____________ inflation in the last few years.
A. put up with B. taken up on C. kept up with D. done out of
15. Don’t you believe in __________ between men and women?
A. equal B. equality C. equalize D. equalizer
16. The bomb _________with a loud bang which could be heard all over the town.
A. went on B. went down C. went over D. went off
17. ___________history, women have always aimed for a recognized place in society.
A. During B. In C. Throughout D. For
18. Thanks to the women’s liberation, women can take part in _________ activities.
A. social B. society C. socially D. socialize
19. His parents died when he was small and he was ______ by his grandmother and aunt.
A. grown in B. helped along C. taken D. brought up
20. It is against the law to __________ on the basic of sex, age, marital status or race.
A. suit B. discriminate C. believe D. gain
21. I don’t know how they live now. I have lost __________ with them since they moved to Ho Chi Minh city.
A. money B. address C. communication D. contact
22. Nowadays women can contribute __________ the scientific and social development.
A. for B. to C. in D. at
23. Education is recognized as _________essential need for achieving equality in most walks of life.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
24. If you do not understand the word “superstitious”, look it up in the dictionary.
A. find its meaning B. write it C. draw it D. note it
25. My alarm clock _________ off in the middle of the night and ________ me up.
A. went/ turned B. went/ woke C. woke/ went D. woke/ turned
26. Outdoor _________ are good for children and teenagers.
A. actors B. actions C. activities D. acts
27. His father is talking _______ the head teacher ________his behavior at school.
A. to_ at B. with_ to C. to_ about D. with_ to
28. Put your shoes _________, it’s too cold to walk around barefoot.
A. off B. up C. on D. away
29. The woman sitting opposite me on the train kept _________ at me.
A. to stare B. stare C. staring D. stared
30. There have been significant changes in women’s lives since the women’s liberation movement.
A. controlled B. economic C. important D. natural
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
31. After Mary had had a lunch and taken a map, she hurried up to the lecture hall again.
A B C D
32. Oh no! We’ve run out petrol and the nearest filling station is ten miles away.
A B C D
33. This dish tastes like it has meat in it, but it consists with vegetable.
A B C D
34. Women’s movements ensure the full education, develop and advancement of women.
A B C D
35. The Japanese are accustomed to take their shoes off when they enter their houses.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one.
36. It is argued that women can not come to a decision in all matters.
A. It is argued that women cannot make up in all matters.
B. It is argued that women cannot make off in all matters.
C. It is argued that women cannot make for their mind in all matters.
D. It is argued that women cannot make up their mind in all matters.
37. Mothers have to educate and train their children to be good members for society.
A. Mothers have to bring round their children to be good members for society.
B. Mothers have to bring in their children to be good members for society.
C. Mothers have to bring up their children to be good members for society.
D. Mothers have to bring about their children to be good members for society.
38. It’s possible that we won’t take part in the match this weekend.
A. We will probably take part in the match this weekend.
B. We will not take part in the match this weekend.
C. We may not take part in the match this weekend.
D. We must not take part in the match this weekend.
39. The manager has been responsible for his work in the office.
A. The work in the office has been responsible for the manager.
B. The manager has taken on his work in the office.
C. The manager has take up his work in the office.
D. The work in the office has made the manager responsible.
40. Do you have a good relationship with neighbors?
A. Are you getting with your neighbors?
B. Are you going along with your neighbors?
C. Are you getting well with your neighbors?
D. Are you getting along with your neighbors?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 41to 45:
It’s always thought that women are the second class in citizen, and men are the first. There is not a real equality of opportunity for men and women. Years ago, people were living in a man- dominated society. Women had to obey their husbands and fathers absolutely. Women’s place was in the kitchen and women’s work was housework. In many places, women were not even allowed to go to school. Women had no rights, even the right to choose a husband for themselves. Men usually occupied high positions in society so they thought they were more intelligent and important than women. Men considered women their property. Sometimes, women were mistreated by their husbands and suffered this as a fate. Many parents did not even want to have female children.
Thanks to the women’s liberation movement, women have nowadays proved that they are equal to men on every aspect. An average woman has weaker muscles than an average man but she may be as intelligent as him. Women can do everything that men can and women can do one thing that no men can; they produce children.
- In a man- dominated society, _________.
A. women were the first class. B. women had no right.
C. women were respected by men. D. women got a good education.
42. Years ago, women’s place was _________.
A. in society B. at school
C. in the Congress D. in the kitchen
43. In a man- dominated society, men regarded women as their ___________.
A. property B. queen C. great love D. housework
44. In a man- dominated society, ___________.
A. all parents expected to have daughters.
B. most parents liked girl babies.
C. most parents did not want to have daughters.
D. most parents did not like sons.
45. Nowadays women have proved that they are ________ men.
A. more intelligent than B. more important than
C. stronger than D. equal to
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 46 to 50:.
Years ago, in their private family role, women quite often dominate the male members of the household. Women were quite dedicated to their families. However, the public role of women has changed (46) _____ since the beginning of World War II.
During the war, men were away from home to the battle. As a result, women were in complete control of the home. They found themselves doing double and sometimes triple duty. They began to take (47)______ the work of their absent husbands and to work outside. They accounted for 73% of the industrial labor force.
The feminist movement seems to have been (48) _____ important part in the demands (49) _____ women Equal Rights. The movement tends to have a way of changing men and women and their roles in society. In the late nineteenth century, the invention of the typewriter gave women a new skill and a. job outside the home. The Suffragettes in the turn of the century has become a (50) _____ for most women to be engaged in equality.
46. A. unfortunately B. approximately C. nearly D. dramatically
47. A. on B. over C. up D. to
48. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
49. A. for B. in C. with D. against
50. A. present B. souvenir C. symbol D. role
TEST OF UNIT 16
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions:
1. A. diverse B. admit C. science D. enterprise
2. A. growth B. although C. without D. southern
3. A. combined B. planned C. recorded D. aimed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of main stress in each of the following questions:
4. A. technology B. situation C. development D. establishment
5. A. agriculture B. electronic C. population D. scientific
Mark the correct option A, B, C or D to fill each of the following blanks:
6. Don’t ___________ singing. You are very talented for it.
A. look after B. give up C. sit down D. search for
7. ASEAN also try to solve the problems of ethnic tensions which might lead _______ civil war.
A. into B. away C. off D. to
8. ASEAN also works for the _______ of peace and stability in the region.
A. promote B. promotion C. promotional D. promoter
9. ASEAN was founded on 8 August, 1967 with five ________ : Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, and the Philippines.
A. members B. competitors C. leaders D. statesmen
10. ASEAN is an organization on the Southeast Asian region that aims to _______ economic growth, social progress, and cultural development.
A. account B. include C. accelerate D. respect
11. The aims of the Association of Southeast Asia include the evolvement of economic growth, social progress, cultural development among its members, and the promotion of regional peace.
A. goals B. organizations C. missions D. plans
12. Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.
A. same B. adopted C. various D. respected
13. One of ASEAN's objectives is to help people think about peace and _______ and do something about it.
A. origin B. justice C. statistics D. record
14. There are plenty of industrial _______ established in the area, which also makes the government worried about pollution.
A. series B. goods C. enterprises D. relationships
15. ASEAN helps to _______ regional cooperation in Southeast Asia in the spirit of equality and partnership
A. invest B. promote C. admit D. invest
16. 2007 was the 40th anniversary of the _______ of ASEAN.
A. found B. founder C. foundation D. founding
17. ASEAN economic cooperation _______ many areas, such as agriculture, industry, services, transportations, and tourism.
A. creates B. contains C. consists D. covers
18. The 8th ASEAN Science and Technology Week is now being _______ in Manila from 1 to 11 July 2008.
A. held B. joined C. related D. combined
19. The ASEAN Science and Technology Week aims to promote science and technology _______ in the region.
A. tourism B. solution C. forestry D. development
20. He says the government must introduce tax incentives to encourage _______.
A. dedication B. growth C. unemployment D. investment
21. _______, I will give him the report.
A. When he will return B. When he returns
C. Until he will return D. No sooner he returns
22. _______ the firemen arrived to help, we had already put out the fire.
A. Until B. No sooner C. By the time D. After
23. I have earned my own living _______ I was seven.
A. since B. when C. while D. as soon as
24. We saw many beautiful birds _______ in the lake.
A when we are fishing B. while fishing C. while fished D. fishing
25. _______, Peter came to see me.
A. While having dinner B. While I was having dinner
C. When having dinner D. When I am having dinner
26. _______ my homework, I went to bed.
A. After I had finished B. After finished
C. Finished D. After had finished
27. _______ the dance, Jerry said good-bye to his girlfriend.
A. Before left B. Before he leaves
C. Before leaving D. Before he would leave
28. Jones _______ after everyone _______.
A. speaks / will eat B. will speak / has eaten
C. is speaking / eats D. has spoken / will have eaten
29. _______, Joe stays in bed and reads magazines.
A. Whenever raining B. As it will be raining
C. When it will rain D. Whenever it rains
30. As soon as I ________ a good look at the designs, I _______ them back to you.
A. have had/ sent B. have had / will send
C. have / send D. will have / send
31. The bus came after I _____________ there for about 20 minutes.
A. standing B. stand C. was standing D. had been standing
32. By the time we _____ to the train station, Susan ____ for us for more than two hours.
A. will get / has been waiting B. got / was waiting
C. got / had been waiting D. get / will wait
33. We are going to visit our grandparents when we will finish our final exams.
A B C D
34. Those boys took a long ladder .
A. so they will get the ball from the roof
B. and then get the ball from the roof
C. in order to get the ball from the roof
D. so that the ball from the roof can be gotten
35. The more you talk about the situation, .
A. it seems the worse B. the worse it seems
C. it seems worse D. the worse does it seem
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 36 to 40.
ASEAN SOCIO‑CULTURAL COMMUNITY
The ASEAN Socio‑Cultural Community, in consonance with the goal set by ASEAN Vision 2020, envisages a Southeast Asia bonded together in partnership as a community of caring societies and founded on a common regional identity. The Community shall foster cooperation in social development aimed at _____ (36)______ the standard of living of disadvantaged groups and the rural population, and shall seek the active involvement of all sectors of society, in particular women, youth, and local communities.
ASEAN shall ensure that its work force shall be ____ (37)____ for, and benefit from, economic integration by investing more resources in basic and higher _____ (38)____, training, science and technology development, job creation and social protection.
ASEAN shall _____ (39)______ intensify cooperation in the area of public health, including in the prevention and control of infectious and communicable diseases. The development and enhancement of _____ (40)______ resources is a key strategy for employment generation, alleviating poverty and socio‑economic disparities, and ensuring economic growth with equity.
36. A. raising B. rising C. upgrading D. pushing
37. A. awaited B. developed C. mentioned D. prepared
38. A. education B. educate C. educator D. educational
39. A. deeper B. further C. more D. higher
40. A. human B. men C. mankind D. people
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 41 to 45.
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations or ASEAN was established on 18 August 1967 in Bangkok by the five original Member Countries, namely, Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand. Brunei Darussalam joined on 8 January 1984, Vietnam on 28 July 1995, Lao PDR and Myanmar on 23 July 1997, and Cambodia on 30 April 1999.
As of 2006, the ASEAN region had a population of about 560 million, a total area of 4.5 million square kilometers, a combined gross domestic product of almost US$ 1,100 billion, and a total trade of about US$ 1,400 billion.
The ASEAN Declaration states that the aims and purposes of the Association are: (1) to accelerate economic growth, social progress and cultural development in the region and (2) to promote regional peace and stability through abiding respect for justice and the rule of law in the relationship among countries in the region and adherence to the principles of the United Nations Charter.
The ASEAN Vision 2020, adopted by the ASEAN Leaders on the 30th Anniversary of ASEAN, agreed on a shared vision of ASEAN as a concert of Southeast Asian nations, outward looking, living in peace, stability and prosperity, bonded together in partnership in dynamic development and in a community of caring societies.
In 2003, the ASEAN Leaders resolved that an ASEAN Community shall be established comprising three pillars, namely, ASEAN Security Community, ASEAN Economic Community and ASEAN Socio‑cultural Community.
41. Which of the following countries is NOT the founder of ASEAN?
A. Thailand B. Malaysia C. Singapore D. Myanmar
42. In which year did Vietnam join ASEAN?
A.1984 B.1995 C.1997 D.1999
43. What was the combined gross domestic product of ASEAN in 2006?
A. US$4.5 million B. US$560 million
C. US$ 1,100 billion D. US$ 1,400 billion
44. What does the word "prosperity" in paragraph 4 mean?
A. welfare B. sincerity C. strength D. power
45. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. There are 5 original member countries of ASEAN.
B. One of the purposes of ASEAN is to promote regional peace and stability.
C. In 2020 the 30th Anniversary of ASEAN will be celebrated.
D. ASEAN Security Community is one pillar of ASEAN Community.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one.
46. As soon as you arrive, give me a call.
A. Give me a call immediately on arrival. B. Wait until I call you to arrive.
C. I will phone you on my arrival. D. Whenever you call me, I will arrive.
47. Lucy always reminds me of my youngest sister.
A. My youngest sister's name is Lucy.
B. Whenever I see Lucy, I think of my youngest sister.
C. It is Lucy who is my youngest sister.
D. I always think of Lucy, my youngest sister.
48. By the time we finished our work, Peter had already gone home.
A. Peter did not go home until we finished our work.
B. As soon as we finished our work, we would go home with Peter.
C. We finished our work before Peter went home.
D. Peter had gone home before we finished our work.
49. It is years since I last ate fish.
A. I have not eaten fish for years.
B. For many years, I have eaten only fish.
C. I like eating fish for years.
D. It is fish that I have eaten for many years.
50. It will not be long until he is at the meeting.
A. It will take him a long time to attend the meeting.
B. He will be at the meeting soon.
C. The meeting will last for a long time.
D. He has been at the meeting for a long time.
KEY TO TEST OF UNIT 10
| 1.B | 2.D | 3.D | 4.C | 5.D | 6.B | 7.B | 8.B | 9.D | 10.A |
| 11.D | 12.A | 13.C | 14.D | 15.B | 16.C | 17.A | 18.B | 19.A | 20.C |
| 21.A | 22.D | 23.B | 24.D | 25.B | 26.C | 27.A | 28.A | 29.A | 30.A |
| 31.A | 32.D | 33.B | 34.B | 35.D | 36.A | 37.C | 38.D | 39.B | 40.C |
| 41.C | 42.B | 43.A | 44.D | 45.A | 46.C | 47.B | 48.B | 49.A | 50.D |
KEY TO TEST OF UNIT 11
| 1. B | 2.D | 3.B | 4.C | 5. A | 6. B | 7. B | 8. B | 9. B | 10. D |
| 11. B | 12. A | 13. B | 14. C | 15. A | 16. C | 17. C | 18. A | 19. D | 20. A |
| 21. C | 22. B | 23. A | 24. A | 25. D | 26. D | 27. B | 28. D | 29. B | 30. C |
| 31. C | 32. D | 33. A | 34. D | 35. B | 36. A | 37. D | 38. D | 39. B | 40. B |
| 41. B | 42. B | 43. A | 44. D | 45. A | 46. B | 47. D | 48. D | 49. A | 50. C |
KEY TO TEST OF UNIT 12
| 1.D | 2.D | 3.B | 4.D | 5.D | 6.A | 7.B | 8.C | 9.C | 10.A |
| 11.C | 12.A | 13.C | 14.D | 15.C | 16.C | 17.A | 18.C | 19.C | 20.C |
| 21.A | 22.A | 23.C | 24.C | 25.B | 26.A | 27.D | 28.B | 29.C | 30.B |
| 31.B | 32.B | 33.D | 34.D | 35.C | 36.B | 37.A | 38.B | 39.A | 40.B |
| 41.B | 42.C | 43.A | 44.B | 45.D | 46.A | 47.C | 48.C | 49.B | 50.D |
KEY TO TEST OF UNIT 13
| 1.A | 2.D | 3.B | 4.C | 5.A | 6.C | 7.C | 8.B | 9.D | 10.A |
| 11.A | 12.C | 13.D | 14.B | 15.A | 16.A | 17.B | 18.A | 19.B | 20.A |
| 21.B | 22.C | 23.C | 24.D | 25.D | 26.B | 27.C | 28.C | 29.A | 30.A |
| 31.D | 32.B | 33.D | 34.C | 35.B | 36.D | 37.A | 38.C | 39.C | 40.C |
| 41.C | 42.B | 43.A | 44.D | 45.D | 46.C | 47.A | 48.C | 49.B | 50.D |
KEY TO TEST OF UNIT 14
| 1.D | 2.B | 3.A | 4.D | 5.C | 6.B | 7.A | 8.A | 9.C | 10.B |
| 11.C | 12.C | 13.A | 14.A | 15.A | 16.C | 17.A | 18.B | 19.B | 20.C |
| 21.D | 22.C | 23.C | 24.A | 25.C | 26.B | 27.D | 28.D | 29.D | 30.A |
| 31.B | 32.A | 33.D | 34.B | 35.C | 36.B | 37.D | 38.D | 39.D | 40.D |
| 41.A | 42.D | 43.D | 44.A | 45.C | 46.C | 47.B | 48.A | 49.A | 50.C |
KEY TO TEST OF UNIT 15
| 1.C | 2.D | 3.A | 4.B | 5.B | 6.D | 7.D | 8.B | 9.D | 10.C |
| 11.B | 12.D | 13.A | 14.C | 15.B | 16.D | 17.C | 18.A | 19.D | 20.B |
| 21.D | 22.B | 23.B | 24.A | 25.B | 26.C | 27.C | 28.C | 29.C | 30.C |
| 31.B | 32.A | 33.D | 34.C | 35.B | 36.D | 37.C | 38.C | 39.C | 40.C |
| 41.B | 42.B | 43.A | 44.C | 45.D | 46.D | 47.B | 48.B | 49.A | 50.C |
KEY TO TEST OF UNIT 16
| 1.B | 2.A | 3.C | 4.B | 5.A | 6.B | 7.D | 8.B | 9.A | 10.C |
| 11.A | 12.C | 13.B | 14.C | 15.B | 16.C | 17.D | 18.A | 19.D | 20.D |
| 21.B | 22.C | 23.A | 24.B | 25.B | 26.A | 27.C | 28.B | 29.D | 30.B |
| 31.D | 32.C | 33.D | 34.C | 35.B | 36. B | 37. D | 38.A | 39. B | 40. A |
| 41. D | 42.B | 43.C | 44.D | 45.C | 46. A | 47. B | 48.D | 49.A | 50.B |
Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bài tập kiểm tra Units 10-16 Tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang Chúng tôi để tải tài liệu về máy tính.
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Mời các em tham khảo các tài liệu có liên quan:
- Bài tập ngữ pháp Tiếng Anh 12
- Tổng hợp bài tập về mệnh đề trạng ngữ có đáp án
- Tổng hợp các dạng bài tập về thì Tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án
- Tổng hợp toàn bộ ngữ pháp trọng tâm Tiếng Anh 12
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