Bộ câu hỏi rèn luyện ôn tập hè kĩ năng đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh 12

BỘ CÂU HỎI RÈN LUYỆN ÔN TẬP HÈ KĨ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU TIẾNG ANH 12

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Nowadays, everybody knows Apples and (106) ____ everybody knows that the company was founded by Steve Jobs, an American inventor and entrepreneur. He is (107) ____ recognized as a pioneer in the field of microcomputer revolution. He helped design the first Macintosh computer, (108) ____ a small computer graphics company into Pixar, the company behind Toy Story and The Monster Inc.

His countercultural lifestyle and philosophy was a product of the time and place of his (109) ____. Jobs was adopted and raised in San Francisco Bay Area during the 1960s. In 1972, Jobs attended Reed College from which he (110) ____ in next to no time. Jobs co-founded Apple in 1976 in order to sell Apple I personal computer. At that moment, he might (111) ____ imagine that only a year later the company tasted impressive victory with Apple II, one of the first highly successful (112) ____ personal computers. (113) ____, in 1985, following a long power struggle, Jobs was forced out of Apple. After leaving Apple, Jobs took (114) ____ of its members with him to found NeXT, a computer development company which was then bought by Apple. The purchase (115) ____ Jobs to become the company's CEO once again.

Steve Jobs died in 2011 after battling with pancreatic cancer (116) ____ nearly a decade. Millions first learned of Job's death on a (117) ____ which had been invented by himself.

106. A. most                          B. almost                   C. the most                            D. mostly

107. A. widely                       B. hardly                    C. legally                    D. nationally

108. A. translated                 B. transferred            C. transformed                     D. transited

109. A. increase                   B. upbringing            C. rising         D. grow

110. A. dropped in               B. dropped up           C. dropped out         D. dropped by

111. A. hardly           B. truly           C. effortlessly            D. frequently

112. A. massly-produced    B. mass-produced   C. massive-produced D. mass-producing

113. A. Generally                 B. Frankly                  C. Fortunately D. Unfortunately

114. A. few                            B. a few                      C. a little        D. little

115. A. was allowing           B. has allowed          C. allowed     D. had allowed

116. A. for                              B. since                     C. during                                D. of

117. A. devil                          B. deviation               C. deviant                              D. device

ĐÁP ÁN

106B 107A 108C 109B 110C 111A 112B 113D 114B 115C 116A 117D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Born on June 30, 1985 in Baltimore, Maryland, to Fred and Debbie Phelps, the youngest of three children, Michael Phelps and his sisters grew up in the neighbourhood of Rodger Forge. His father, Fred, a former all-rounded athlete, was a state trooper and his mother Debbie was a middle-school principal. When Phelps's parents divorced in 1994, he and his siblings lived with their mother, with whom Michael grew very close. Even at the age of 7, Phelps was still a little scared to put his head under water, so his instructors allowed him to float around on his back. Not surprisingly, despite the fact that later he is very good at butterfly swimming, the first stroke he mastered was not the easily-practised breaststroke but the backstroke.

At the age of 15, Phelps became the youngest American male swimmer to compete at an Olympic Games in 68 years. While he didn't win any medals at the 2000 Summer Olympics in Sydney, Australia, he would soon become a major force in competitive swimming.

In the spring of 2001, Phelps set the world record in the 200-meter butterfly, becoming the youngest male swimmer in history at the age of 15 years and 9 months. At the 2001 World Championships in Japan, he then broke his own record with a time of 1:54:58, earning his first international medal. In 2002, Phelps continued to establish several records including the 100-meter butterfly and the 200-meter individual medley. The following year, at the same event, he broke his own world record in the 400-meter individual medley with a time of 4:09.09.

After the London Olympics in 2012, Phelps announced he was retiring from his sport. However, at the 2016 Olympic Games, he came out of retirement and returned to professional competition. This was also the event which he won one silver and five gold medals, becoming the oldest individual gold medalist in Olympic swimming history, as well as the first swimmer to win four consecutive golds in the same event, the 200-meter individual medley.

118. Phelps's father used to be a comprehensive ____.

A. principal                B. trooper                  C. athlete                   D. instructor

119. The first style of swimming Phelps was good at is ____.

A. butterfly                 B. freestyle                C. breaststroke         D. backstroke

120. He didn't win any medals at the Olympics of ____

A. 2002                      B. 2000                      C. 2012                      D. 2016

121. At the 2001 World Championships in Japan, he broke the record of ____.

A. 200-meter butterfly                                 B. 100-meter butterfly

C. 200-meter individual                              D. 400-meter individual

122. The word consecutive in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. stoppable              B. unending              C. uninterrupted       D. unrestricted

ĐÁP ÁN

118C 119D 120B 121A 122C

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Theresa May, the second female Britain's prime minister following Margaret Thatcher, revealed in 2013 that she had been given a diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes, a condition that requires daily insulin injections. Asked later how she felt about the diagnosis, she said her approach to it was the same as toward everything in her life: “Just get on and deal with it.” That kind of steeliness brought her to center stage in the aftermath of Britain's vote to leave the European Union and the feuding that erupted in the Conservative Party over who would succeed David Cameron.

Ms. May, 59 years old, is the country's longest-serving home secretary in half a century, with a reputation for seriousness, hardwork and above all, determination. She is one of a growing number of women in traditionally male-dominated British politics rising to the upper position of leadership.

Born in 1956, Ms. May grew up mainly in Oxfordshire, an only child who was first drawn to the Conservative Party at age 12. As a conscientious student, she never rebelled against her religious upbringing and remains a regular churchgoer. Tellingly, her sports hero was Geoffrey Boycott, a solid, stubborn cricketer who specialized in playing the long game.

Like many other Britain's prime minister including Tony Blair, Sir Robert Peel and Margaret Thatcher, she won a place at Oxford. But while almost every other political leader got there by way of Eton College and joined Oxford's hedonistic Bullingdon Club, she attended a state secondary school and had a more sedate university career. After unsuccessful attempts to be elected to the House of Commons in 1992 and 1994, she finally became an MP in 1997 general election.

May is known for a love of fashion and in particular distinctive shoes. She even wore leopard-print shoes to her final Cabinet meeting as Home Secretary in early 2016. However, she has been quite critical of the media focusing on her fashion instead of her achievement as a politician. May also describes cooking and walking as primary hobbies, and if someone is raising questions about why walking can be classified as a hobby, she elaborates in a column for Balance magazine, in which she wrote of her battle with diabetes.

123. According to the passage, who is the prime minister coming before Theresa May?

A. Tony Blair             B. Margaret Thatcher          C. Sir Robert Peel    D. David Cameron

124. The most prominent characteristic of Theresa May is ____.

A. stubbornness       B. seriousness                     C. determination                   D. hard work

125. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. British political life is conventionally controlled mainly by men.

B. The number of women in politics is increasing.

C. Conservative Party didn't have to discuss about who would be the next prime minister.

D. Theresa May's toughness was one of the reasons for the Party to choose her for the prime minister position.

126. Which of the following facts is TRUE about Theresa May?

A. She graduated from Eton College.

B. As a child, she was quite rebellious.

C. She didn't work part time as a university student.

D. She used not to be a home secretary.

127. She first became a member of parliament in ____.

A. 1992                      B. 1994                      C. 1997                      D. 2013

128. Her reason to consider walking as one of her main hobbies is ____.

A. she is quite critical                                              B. it helps her fight diabetes

C. someone asks about it                           D. it is written on Balance magazine

129. The word approach in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. means                   B. advance                C. technique                         D. trick

130. The word hedonistic in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. ordinary                 B. luxurious               C. economical                       D. simple

ĐÁP ÁN

123D 124C 125C 126C 127C 128B 129A 130B

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Rapid urbanization can (106) ____ long-term economic, social and environmental promise for developing countries (107) ____ investments made now in infrastructure, housing and public services are efficient and sustainable, the World Bank says in a new report.

In the next two decades, cities are (108) ____ to expand by another two billion residents, as people move in unprecedented (109) ____ from rural areas to pursue hopes and aspirations in cities. More than 90 (110) ____ of this urban population growth is expected to occur in the developing world, (111) ____ many cities are already struggling to provide basic (112) ____ such as water, electricity, transport, health services and education.

Report authors note that (113) ____ new urban growth will not take (114) ____ in the “megacities” of the world e.g. Rio de Janeiro, Jakarta or New Delhi (115) ____ rather in less commonly recognized “secondary” cities - places like Fushun in China, and Surat in India.

To help policymakers prepare for and manage growth, the report distills lessons (116) ____ from 12 countries across all geographic regions and stages of urbanization. It then translates these global lessons (117) ____ practical policy advice.

106. A. bring             B. carry                      C. hold                                   D. take

107. A. if                    B. unless                   C. whether                D. while

108. A. predictable   B. predicted               C. predicting              D. predictions

109. A. amounts       B. numbers               C. ranges                   D. sums

110. A. per cent        B. percentage                       C. proportion             D. rate

111. A. what              B. where                    C. which                    D. why

112. A. demands      B. needs                    C. orders                    D. uses

113. A. almost          B. most                       C. mostly                    D. nearly

114. A. form              B. hand                      C. place                     D. time

115. A. but                 B. nor                         C. or                            D. yet

116. A. are learned B. being learned       C. learned                 D. learning

117. A. by                  B. into                                     C. up to                      D. up with

ĐÁP ÁN

106C 107A 108B 109B 110A 111B 112B 113B 114C 15A 116C 117B

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The increase in urbanization causes different problems. Air and water pollution are amongst the major issue we have to tackle.

In the first place, cars, factories and burning waste emit dangerous gases that change the air quality in our cities and pose threats to our health. Dangerous gases such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides cause respiratory diseases, for instant, bronchitis and asthma. Those are also proved to have long-term effects on the environment.

Furthermore, with the increased population, it becomes difficult to manage the waste generated in cities. Most of the waste is discharged or dumped into rivers or onto streets. The waste pollutes water and makes it unfit for human consumption. Subsequently, it becomes more and more difficult for city dwellers to get clean water. Some cities in Africa are unable to provide adequate water supply because most of the water is lost in pipe leakages. In fact, most city dwellers in developing countries are forced to boil their water or to buy bottled water, which is very expensive.

There are several actions that could be taken to eradicate the problems described above. Firstly, a simple solution would be joining community efforts to address problems affecting your city. Ask your parents, friends and relatives to join in as well. These efforts might include clean-up campaigns, recycling projects and a signature campaign to ask the government to do something about the situation. A second measure would be encouraging your teacher to talk about these problems and to discuss how young people can help to solve them. Finally, writing to local organizations working on these issues for ideas on how you can contribute to solve them.

118. The word tackle in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. deal with               B. make up                C. try on                     D. turn down

119. The word those in paragraph 2 refers to ____.

A. bronchitis and asthma                            B. carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides

C. dangerous gases                                    D. respiratory diseases

120. According to the passage, in some cities in Africa ____.

A. people are allowed to dump waste into rivers and on streets

B. people aren't provided enough water due to leaking pipes

C. people have found some solutions to the problems

D. people would rather use boiling water and bottled water

121. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. City problems should be taught and be topic for students to discuss at school.

B. Children must ask for their parent's permission before joining community efforts.

C. Participators might take part in different kinds of projects and campaigns.

D. People can contribute in solving the problems by writing to local organizations working on these issues.

122. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?

A. Environment degradation: Air and water pollution

B. Environmental pollution: Problems and actions

C. Increasing urbanization: Causes and effects

D. Increasing urbanization: Effects and solutions

ĐÁP ÁN

118A 119C 120B 121B 122D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Buying a house is the single largest financial investment an individual makes. Yet, in India this act is fraught with risk and individuals depend on weak laws for justice. Occasionally, deviant promoters are called to account as was the case in the detention of Unitech's promoters. This incident shows up the fallout of an absence of proper regulation to cover contracts between buyers and real estate promoters. A real estate bill, which is presently pending in Rajya Sabha, seeks to fill this gap. It has been debated for over two years and should be passed by Parliament in the budget session.

India is in the midst of rapid urbanization and urban population is expected to more than double to about 900 million over the next three decades. Unfortunately, even the current population does not have adequate housing. A government estimate in 2012 put the shortage at nearly 19 million units. If this shortage is to be alleviated quickly, India's messy real estate sector needs reforms.

The real estate bill seeks to set standards for contracts between buyers and sellers. Transparency, a rare commodity in real estate, is enforced as promoters have to upload project details on the regulators' website. Importantly, standard definitions of terms mean that buyers will not feel cheated after taking possession of a house. In order to protect buyers who pay upfront, a part of the money collected for a real estate project is ring-fenced in a separate bank account. Also, given the uncertainty, which exists in India on land titles, the real estate bill provides title insurance. This bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary committees and its passage now brooks no delay.

This bill is an important step in cleaning up the real estate market, but the journey should not end with it. State governments play a significant role in real estate and they are often the source of problems. Some estimates suggest that real estate developers have to seek approvals of as many as 40 central and state departments, which lead to delays and an escalation in the cost of houses. Sensibly, NDA government's project to provide universal urban housing forces states to institute reforms to access central funding. Without real estate reforms at the level of states, it will not be possible to

meet the ambition of making housing accessible for all urban dwellers.

123. It can be inferred from the passage that ____.

A. buying house is not a single largest individual investment

B. in India, no one depends on laws for justice

C. the real estate bill does not provide title insurance

D. urbanization in India has increased rapidly

124. According to the passage, which of the following is the pending in Rajya Sabha?

A. NDA government's new scheme          B. Universal rural housing programme

C. Real estate bill                                         D. Universal urban housing programme

125. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Current population does not have adequate housing in India.

B. India's real estate sector needs reforms.

C. Real state bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary committees.

D. Urban population is expected to more than double to about 850 million over the next three decades.

126. According to the passage, what is the source of problem in real estate?

A. Buyers and sellers                                              B. Central governments

C. Market money makers                           D. State governments

127. The word alleviated in the second paragraph is OPPOSITE in meaning to ____.

A. aggravated                       B. deaden                 C. diminished                       D. relieved

128. The word possession in the third paragraph refers to ____.

A. lease                      B. need                      C. proprietary rights             D. renting

129. The word escalation in the forth paragraph refers to ____.

A. decrease               B. growth                   C. reduction              D. sustainability

130. It is impossible to meet the ambition of making housing accessible for urban dwellers ____.

A. with real estate reforms at state level

B. without support of central government

C. without passing the bill in Rajya Sabha

D. without real estate reforms at the level of states

ĐÁP ÁN

123D 124C 125D 126D 127A 128C 129B 130D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Every night, almost one billion people go to bed hungry. How can we feed all these (106) ____ people? Farmers all over the world have to content with weather, insects, and natural disasters, which are capable of (107) ____ crops and ruining years of hard work. And the population is set to rise to nine billion by 2050. Here are four possible solutions.

GM crops

Proponents of genetically modified crops (GM crops) claim that they will hugely (108) ____ food production. Scientists have developed drought-resistant and disease-resistant crops, more productive crops, and crops with increased vitamins. Anti-GM protesters worry (109) ____ health risks and damage to other plants that grow near the GM crops.

Vertical farming

Another answer could be to grow food in buildings. (110) ____ of vertical farming are suggesting we construct multistory, climate-controlled farm buildings in the heart of our cities. One indoor hectare of land would be (111) ____ to above five hectares outdoors, so we could grow year-round crops that would easily feed whole cities. Opponents point to the cost, the increased energy used and the effect on farmers.

Eat less meat Others say the solution lies not (112) ____ new technologies, but in eating less meat. It takes about seven kilos of corn to produce one kilo of beef. That quality of corn will keep more people (113) ____ than that quality of beef. But this is a message the world doesn't want to hear. Meat consumption is rising steeply.

Increase aid

Rich countries have far more food than they need and waste vast amount of it - 6.7 million tons a year in the UK (114) ____. We can afford to send surplus food to people (115) ____ need it. We could also simply give more money to developing countries, (116) ____ they can buy food. (117) ____ say that this makes people dependent on rich countries and is only a short-term solution.

106. A. undernourished      B. unhealthy             C . unbelievable       D. undeniable

107. A. wasting                    B. destroying             C. killing         D. harvesting

108. A. strengthen               B. rise                         C. increase                D. enlarge

109. A. about                        B. to                            C. with                        D. on

110. A. Promoters                B. Advocates            C. Champion D. Spokesmen

111. A. same                        B. parallel                  C. alike           D. equivalent

112. A. on                              B. to                            C. in                            D. over

113. A. alive                          B. lively                      C. vital                                    D. active

114. A. lonesome                 B. lone                       C. lonely                    D. alone

115. A. whom                       B. which                    C. who                                   D. what

116. A. because                   B. but                          C. so                           D. since

117. A. Reviewers               B. Critics                    C. Analysts                D. Judges

ĐÁP ÁN

106A 107B 108C 109A 110B 111D 112C 113A 114D 115C 116C 117B

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Coral reefs are the most diverse of all marine ecosystems. They are full of life, with perhaps one quarter of all ocean species depending on reefs for food and shelter. This is a remarkable statistic when you consider that reefs cover just a tiny fraction of the earth's surface and less than two per cent of the ocean bottom. Because they are so diverse, coral reefs are often called the rainforests of the ocean. Coral reefs are very important to people. They even provide seventy per cent of the food demands for some marine species, protection of shorelines, jobs based on tourism (nine out of twelve activities for tourists in Nha Trang, for example, involve the coral reefs), and even medicines.

Unfortunately, climate change is the greatest global threat to coral reef ecosystems. Scientific evidence now clearly indicates that the Earth's atmosphere and ocean are warming, and that these changes are primarily due to greenhouse gases derived from human activities.

As temperatures rise, mass coral bleaching events and infectious disease outbreaks are becoming more frequent. Additionally, carbon dioxide absorbed into the ocean from the atmosphere has already begun to reduce calcification rates in reef-building and reef-associated organisms by altering seawater chemistry through decreases in pH. This process is called ocean acidification.

Climate change will affect coral reef ecosystems, through sea level rise, changes to the frequency and intensity of tropical storms, and altered ocean circulation patterns. When combined, all of these impacts dramatically alter ecosystem function, as well as the goods and services coral reef ecosystems provide to people around the globe.

There are also many things you can do to ensure that you are environmentally conscious when you visit coral reefs or coastal areas. These include things such as hiring local guides to support the economy, removing all trash from an area, never touching or harassing wildlife in reef areas, and avoiding dropping your boat anchor or chain nearby a coral reef.

Finally, stay informed and spread the word! Educate yourself about why healthy coral reefs are valuable to the people, fish, plants, and animals that depend on them. Your excitement will help others get involved.

118. Though the coverage of coral reefs on the sea bed is ____, its vital role is undeniable.

A. remarkable                       B. small                      C. diverse                  D. huge

119. ____ of all the ocean species find food and home in the coral reefs.

A. Two per cent        B. Seventy per cent                         C. Twenty-five per cent       D. Nine per cent

120. Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere directly caused ____.

A. infectious disease outbreaks                             B. reef-building

C. sea level rise                                                        D. ocean acidification

121. Which of the following statement is NOT true?

A. Coral reefs can be compared to rainforests due to its diversity.

B. The effects of global warming are only on the ecosystems themselves.

C. You can help the coral reefs by educating not only yourself but people around you.

D. Human activities which cause greenhouse gases are major reasons for the climate change.

122. The word conscious in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. knowledgeable                B. curious                  C. aware                    D. acknowledgeable

ĐÁP ÁN

118B 119C 120C 121B 122C

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The poaching crisis wiping out Africa's elephants is costing the continent's economies millions in lost tourism revenue, according to a new study. Researchers looked at visitor and elephant data across 25 countries, and modeled financial losses from fewer visitors in protected areas due to the illegal wildlife trade, which has caused elephant numbers to plummet by more than 100,000 in the last decade. (A)

The study team combined visitor numbers across 164 protected areas in 25 countries in forest and savannah elephants, and elephant population data from 2009 to 2013, to reach a “per elephant" value in terms of tourism income.

They concluded that Africa was most likely losing $26m in tourism revenue a year. (B) Around $9m of that is lost from tourists' direct spending, such as staying at hotels and buying crafts, with the rest through indirect value in the economy such as farmers and other suppliers supporting the tourist industry.

The study, published in the journal Nature Communications, found that in most cases the revenue losses were higher than paying for stronger anti-poaching measures to keep elephant populations stable. (C) Dr. Robin Naidoo, the paper's lead author and , senior conservation wildlife scientist at WWF and his team found. In the case of central Africa's forest elephants, which are harder for tourists to see and therefore attract fewer visitors, the costs of protecting them exceed the benefits from tourism. Demand from south-east Asia has seen the price of ivory triple since 2009 and it is estimated that one elephant is killed every 15 minutes. (D) Corruption, a lack of resources, and, most importantly, increasingly sophisticated poachers have hamstrung African countries' efforts to stem the trade.

Naidoo said that the research was not suggesting economic issues should be the only consideration when protecting elephants, but framing the poaching crisis as a financial one could motivate African governments and communities.

“It gives an additional reason for some groups of people, who may not necessarily be motivated by intrinsic reasons for conversation, to engage with biodiversity conservation. It makes it clear to them that it's not just in the best interests of the world to conserve this stuff, but tangible reasons for a whole different group," he said.

123. The overall profit that the continent lost a year can be estimated to ____.

A. 25 million USD                B. 100,000 USD       C. 26 million USD                D. 9 million USD

124. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. To get to the conclusion, scientists compared the changes in number of tourists and number of elephants in 2009.

B. The only reason why illegal poaching is so difficult to stop is corruption.

C. Protecting elephants is for the both the practical and immaterial reasons.

D. There is an argument over the differences in the balance between the loss and the cost to protect the elephants.

125. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. Across the continent, the amount of money spent on protecting the elephant is smaller than the loss tourist industry is suffering from.

B. The number of tourists reduces because now it is more difficult for them to see the elephants in the wild.

C. One reason why elephants are killed in mass volume is from the increasing market of ivory in South East Asia.

D. Relating poaching to financial benefits can be considered as one of the solutions to the problem.

126. Which of the positions marked in the passage does the phrase "but the financial argument did not stack up in all areas,” best fit?

A. (A)                          B. (B)                          C. (C)                          D. (D)

127. The word plummet in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. fall                         B. fluctuate                C. rise                         D. Stabilize

128. The word sophisticated in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. simple                    B. outdated               C. advanced                         D. basic

129. The word motivate in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. change                  B. design                   C. form                       D. inspire

130. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?

A. Elephant poaching costs African millions in tourism revenue

B. Elephant poaching does more good than harm

C. Elephant poaching brings an opportunity for Africa to change

D. Elephant poaching reduces the number of elephants in Africa

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.

The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professional worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.

On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.

What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often.

106. The most suitable title for the passage could be ____.

A. Technological Innovations and Their Price

B. The Importance of Mobile Phones

C. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time

D. Advantages and Disadvantages of Mobile Phones

107. According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with the youth because ____.

A. they keep the users in alert all the time

B. they are integral in daily communication

C. they are the only effective means of communication

D. they make them look more stylish

108. According to the passage, the changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with ____.

A. the smallest units of the brain                           B. the central unit of the brain

C. the structure of the brain                                               D. the long-term memory

109. The words negative publicity in paragraph 2 most likely means ____.

A. information on the lethal effects of cellphones

B. the negative public use of cellphones

C. widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones

D. constructive ideas about the effects of cellphones

110. The word their in the last paragraph refers to ____.

A. mobile phone companies                      B. mobile phones     C. high-tech machines                   D. radiations

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

REALITY TELEVISION

Reality, television is a genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted dramatic or humourous situations, documents actual events and features ordinary people rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or "heightened" documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early year of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000.

Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from games to quiz shows which resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no Tsukai), to surveillance - or voyeurism - focused production such as Big Brother.

Critics say that the term "reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray a modified and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic locations or abnormal situations, sometimes coach to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques.

Part of reality television's appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously, travelling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of celebrity.

Some commentators have said that the name "reality television" is an inaccurate description of several styles of program included in the genre. In competition-based programs such as Big Brother and Survivor, and other special-living-environment shows like the Real World, the producers design the format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviours and conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word "reality” to describe his shows; he has said, "I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is unscripted drama."

111. In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because ____.

A. he wants to distance himself from the statement

B. he totally disagrees with the statement

C. everybody except the writer agrees with the statement

D. he wants to emphasize that it is his own claim

112. The word demeaning in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. valueless              B. humiliating                        C. despising              D. diminishing

113. According to the passage, Reality TV appeals to some because ____.

A. it uses exotic locations

B. it shows eligible men dating women

C. it can turn ordinary people into celebrities

D. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances

114. According to the passage, the program “Pop Idol” ____.

A. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother

B. turns all participants into celebrities

C. is a dating show

D. is less likely to turn participants into celebrities than Big Brother

115. Producers choose the participants ____.

A. to make an imaginary world                              B. on the ground of talent

C. to create conflict among other things              D. only for special-living-environment shows

116. The term “reality television” is inaccurate ____.

A. for talent and performance programs              B. for special-living-environment program

C. for all programs                                                   D. for Big Brother and Survivor

117. The word fabricated in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. real                        B. imaginative                       C . imaginary                                    D. isolated

118. Which of the following in NOT true according to the passage?

A. Shows like Survivor have good narratives.

B. Mark Burnett thinks the term "reality television” is inaccurate.

C. Reality television has been popular since well before 2000.

D. Japan has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

A POWERFUL INFLUENCE

There can be no doubt (119) ____ that the Internet has made a huge difference to our lives. Parents are worried that children spend too much time playing on the Internet, hardly (120) ____ doing anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents are (121) ____ to find out why the Internet is so attractive, and they want to know if it can be harmful for their children. Should parents worry if their children are spending that much time (122) ____ their computers?

Obviously, if children are bent over their computers for hours, (123) ____ in some game, instead of doing their homework, then soothing is wrong. Parents and children could decide how much use the child should (124) ____ of the Internet, and the child should give his or her (125) ____ that it won't interfere with homework. If the child is not (126) ____ to this arrangement, the parents can take more drastic steps. (127) ____ with a child's use of the Internet is not much different from negotiating any other sort of bargain about behavior.

Any parent who is seriously alarmed about a child's behavior should make an appointment to discuss the matter with a teacher. Spending time in front of the screen does not (128) ____ affect a child's performance at school. Even if a child is (129) ____ crazy about using the Internet, he or she is probably just (130) ____ through a phase, and in a few months there will be something else to worry about!

119. A. at least         B. at all                       C. at length               D. at most

120. A. ever               B. rarely                     C. never                     D. always

121. A. reluctant       B. concerned            C. curious                  D. hopeful

122. A. watching      B. glancing at                        C. glimpsing at          D. staring at

123. A. puzzled        B. absorbed              C. interested             D. occupied

124. A. cause                       B. take                        C. make                     D. create

125. A. word             B. promise                 C. vow                                    D. claim

126. A. holding         B. seeing                   C. following               D. accepting

127. A. Agreeing      B. Dealing                 C. Talking                  D. Complaining

128. A. possibly        B. unlikely                 C. probably                D. necessarily

129. A. absolutely    B. more                      C. enough                 D. a lot

130. A. going            B. experiencing        C. travelling               D. walking

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Why is culture important and how does it answer the question "(106) ____ is cultural identity?"? Culture is the underlying (107) ____ of traditions and beliefs that help a person (108) ____ to the world around them. It is the basis (109) ____ any superstitions they may have. It is the aversion to (110) ____ types of meat, or which days you can work on. Culture gives us a definite starting point when beginning to (111) ____ for our roots. Knowing (112) ____ a person comes from will help to define how they look at their family obligations as (113) ____ as how they celebrate important milestones in life.

As a person has given up their cultural identity, they (114) ____ can identify themselves with the things that were (115) ____ the most important things in their lives. They lose direction. As time (116) ____ by and they continue to forget about their past and their natural traditions, their identity becomes less and less (117) ____.

106. A. How                          B. Which                    C. Why                                   D. What

107. A. institution                 B. foundation            C. organization                     D. principle

108. A. relate                        B. relating                  C. related                               D. to relate

109. A. in                               B. for                          C. of                                        D. to

110. A. especial                   B. special                   C. specific                            D. typical

111. A. find                            B. look                        C. search                               D. seek

112. A. by which                  B. how                       C. when                                 D. where

113. A. long                           B. much                     C. soon                                  D. well

114. A. any longer               B. any more              C. no longer                         D. no more

115. A. at once                     B. once                      C. one time                            D. for once

116. A. goes                         B. flies                        C. passes                              D. walks

117. A. pronouncing            B. pronounce            C. pronounced     D. been pronouncing

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Modern life is characterized not only by the conveniences made possible by technological advances but also by greater mobility in search of still greater opportunities. These major life changes, however, expose individuals to many novelties in a new culture, which are the causes of culture shock. Culture shock is a process through which most people who enter a new culture pass through before they adjust to life in their new environment.

Culture shock begins with the honeymoon stage”. This is the period of time when we first arrive in which everything about the new culture is strange and exciting. Unfortunately, the second stage "rejection stage" can be quite dangerous because the visitor may develop unhealthy habits (smoking and drinking). This can lead to the person getting sick or developing skin infections or rashes, which then makes the person feel even more scared and confused and helpless. This stage is considered a crisis in the process of cultural adjustment and many people choose to go back to their homeland or spend all their time with people from their own culture speaking their native language. The third stage of culture shock is called the "adjustment stage”. This is when you begin to realize that things are not so bad in the host culture. You are becoming stronger by learning to take care of yourself in the new place. The fourth stage can be called “at ease at last”. Now you feel quite comfortable in your new surroundings. You can cope with most problems that occur. You may still have problems with the language, but you know you are strong enough to deal with them. The last stage of culture shock, which many people don't know about, is called "reverse culture shock”. Surprisingly, this occurs when you go back to your native culture and find that you have changed and that things there have changed while you have been away. Now you feel a little uncomfortable back home. Life is a struggle!

118. Which sentence best explains the main idea of paragraph 1?

A. Culture shock, experienced by people living in a new culture, consists of five basic stages.

B. People immigrate to other countries in search of better opportunities.

C. Modern life is characterized by many technological advances and greater mobility.

D. These major life changes are the causes of culture shock.

119. It is stated that the "honeymoon stage” ____.

A. is involved in developing healthy habits

B. is exciting with the new sights, sounds, language and foods

C. is the initial period of culture shock

D. got its name because everything is new and exciting for the newcomer

120. In paragraph 1, the word novelties probably means ____.

A. things which are new or unusual                                 B. things which are difficult to deal with

C. things which have to do with novels                D. things which are very young or recent in age

121. In paragraph 2, the word host probably means ____.

A. the dominant country                                          B. the largest country

C. the newcomer's native country                                     D. the receiving country

122. Which of the following is NOT true according the passage?

A. At forth stage, newcomers have overcome all problems in the new culture.

B. Immigrants may suffer from "reverse culture shock” when going back to native culture.

C. New arrivals in the second stage, "reject” the new culture by returning to their country or binding even more with other people from their culture.

D. The "rejection stage” is the most difficult stage in the process of cultural adjustment.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In the Native American Navajo nation which sprawls across four states in the American south-west, the native language is dying. Most of its speakers are middle-age or elderly. Although many students take classes in Navajo, the schools are run in English. Street sign, supermarket goods and even their own newspaper are all in English. Not surprisingly, linguists doubt that any native speakers of Navajo will remain in a hundred years' time.

Navajo is far from alone. Half the world's 6,800 languages are likely to vanish within two generations - that's one language lost every ten days. Never before has the planet's linguistic diversity shrunk at such a pace. Isolation breeds linguistic diversity as a result, the world is peppered with languages spoken by only a few people. Only 250 languages have more than a million speakers, and at least 3,000 have fewer than 2,500. It is not necessarily these small languages that are about to disappear. Navajo is considered endangered despite having 150,000 speakers.

What makes a language endangered is not that the number of speakers, but how old they are. If it is spoken by children it is relatively safe. The critically endangered languages are those that are only spoken by the elderly, according to Michael Krauss, director of the Alaska Native Language Center, in Fairbanks.

Why do people reject the language of their parent? It begins with a crisis of confidence, when a small community finds itself alongside a larger, wealthier society, says Nicholas Ostler of Britain's Foundation for Endangered Languages, in Bath. “People lose faith in their culture” he says. "When the next generation reaches their teens, they might not want to be induced into the old tradition.” The change is not always voluntary. Quite often, governments try to kill off a minority language by banning its use in public or discouraging its use in school, all to promote national unity. The former US policy of running Indian reservation in English, for example, effectively put languages such as Navajo on the danger list. But Salikoko Mufwene, who chairs the Linguistics Department at the University of Chicago, argues that the deadliest weapon is not government policy but economic globalisation. "Native Americans have not lost pride in their language, but they have had to adapt to socio-economic pressures" he says. “They cannot refuse to speak English if most commercial activity is in English."

However, a growing interest in cultural identity may prevent the direct predictions from coming true. ‘The key to fostering diversity is for people to learn their ancestral tongue, as well as the dominant language' says Doug Whalen, founder and president of the Endangered Language Fund in New Haven, Connecticut. “Most of these will ive without a large degree of bilingualism” he says.

123. It is stated in the passage that the number of endangered languages is ____.

A. about 3,200          B. about 6,800          C. at least 3,000       D. fewer than 2,500

124. The word peppered in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. randomly separated                                B. slowly attacked

C. sparsely distributed                                            D. unintentionally controlled

125. According to the passage, endangered languages cannot be saved unless people ____.

A. avoid speaking their dominant language        B. grow interest in cultural identities

C. know more than one language                         D. write in their mother tongue

126. Who thinks that a change of language may mean a loss of traditional culture?

A. Doug Whalen      B. Michael Krauss    C. Nicholas Ostler    D. Salikoko Mufwene

127. The word these in paragraph 5 refers to ____.

A. ancestral tongue                                                 B. dominant language

C. growing interest in cultural identity                  D. the key to fostering diversity

128. Navajo language is considered being endangered language because ____.

A. it currently has too few speakers

B. it is spoken by too many elderly and middle-aged speakers

C. it was banned in publicity by the former US policy

D. many young people refuse to learn to speak it

129. Which statement is NOT supported by the information in the passage?

A. A large number of native speakers fail to guarantee the survival of a language.

B. National governments could do more to protect endangered languages.

C. The loss of linguistic diversity is inevitable.

D. Young people often reject the established way of life in their community.

130. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. To describe how diverse languages are in the past.

B. To explain the importance of persevering endangered languages.

C. To explain why more and more languages disappear.

D. To point out that many languages being in danger of extinction.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Alligators have always been the most dangerous predators of the Florida Everglades, (106) ____ their long-held position is now being challenged by a (107) ____ population of Burmese pythons.

The Burmese python, a giant snake measuring up to 20 feet (108) ____ and weighing up to 200 pounds, is very (109) ____ among exotic pet owners. However, as the (110) ____  snakes grow, they become more difficult to cage and handle. To avoid dealing with the snakes, the owners irresponsibly release them into the wild. Since the Everglades is (111) ____ similar to the python's native environment of Southeast Asia, they survive and (112) ____ without difficulty.

The issue with the Burmese pythons is their (113) ____ of meals. They eat alligators and endangered birds, which (114) ____ strain on an already fragile ecosystem. Recently a 13-foot long Burmese python was found with a 5-foot alligator bursting from its stomach. The python died (115) ____ to eat the alligator but a larger one would have easily won the struggle. With over 30,000 Burmese pythons now living (116) ____ the Everglades, a solution to stop this invasive species is necessary. If the pythons are left unchecked, there is a strong possibility they will wipe out a variety of species (117) ____ for the functioning of the Everglades ecosystem.

106. A. but                             B. so                           C. because                            D. since

107. A. grow                         B. growing                 C. growth                               D. grown

108. A. length                       B. lengthen               C. long                                   D. longer

109. A. popular                     B. famous                  C. typical                                D. scarce

110. A. dead                         B. died                        C. death                                 D. deadly

111. A. quiet                         B. quite                      C. quit                                    D. quietly

112. A. prospect                   B. protect                   C. prosper                             D. protest

113. A. choice                       B. choose                  C. chose                                D. chosen

114. A. makes                       B. gives                      C. gets                                   D. creates

115. A. try                              B. trying                     C. tried                                   D. trial

116. A. over                          B. under                     C. in                                        D. on

117. A. necessary                B. necessity              C. need                                  D. needed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The Sahara Desert is the world's largest hot desert. The Sahara is in North Africa and is as large as the United States. Many people think that an area like this has no animals or plant life, but they are incorrect. In fact, the Sahara Desert has many different 'ecoregions’. Each ecoregion has different plants and animals living there. The biggest ecoregion is called the 'Sahara Desert ecoregion.' In this area, the climate is extremely dry and extremely hot. The landscape is sandy and dusty with many high dunes. Because the Sahara Desert ecoregion is so hot and dry, there are very few plants and animals. Scientists estimate that there are only 500 species of plants. This is not very much when thinking of how enormous the region is. These plants include acacia trees, palms, spiny shrubs, and grasses. The Sahara is also home to 70 species of mammals. Twenty of these are large mammals. There are about 90 species of birds and around 100 reptiles.

The biggest threat to plants and animals in this environment is drying up. Because of this, plants have the ability to recover their health after their leaves have dried out completely. Animals can lose 30-60% of their body mass and still survive. Most animals do not get their water from drinking like other ecosystems. Instead, they have adapted to get their water through metabolic processes. This is why they can survive in a place like the Sahara Desert ecosystem.

118. What is the text mostly about?

A. Location of the Sahara Desert.             B. Hot weather of the Sahara Desert.

C. How animals survive on this Desert.   D. The Sahara Desert and its ecosystem.

119. Which of the following is TRUE?

A. The Sahara Desert has no animals or plants.            B. It is the second largest desert.

C. It is in North Africa.                                                         D. It is in the United States.

120. In paragraph 1, the word they refers to ____.

A. people                   B. plants                    C. animals                             D. ecoregions

121. In paragraph 2, the word estimate is closest in meaning to ____.

A. confirm                  B. calculate               C. formulate                          D. participate

122. All of the following are true about the Sahara Desert EXCEPT ____.

A. there are about five hundred types of plants B. seventy species of mammals can be found there

C. it is home to about ninety species of birds     D. Fewer than 100 reptiles are found there

123. Why can animals and plants survive in the Sahara Desert?

A. They try to reduce the water intake.                B. They get water from the irrigation system.

C. They get water through metabolic process.   D. They don't really need water for a long time.

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Amphibians are an animal group that includes frogs, toads, salamanders, and newts. These animals live in and out of the water. The number of amphibians on our planet is declining rapidly in both local mass extinctions and population crashes. This is a cause for concern as many scientists believe that humans are responsible.

Since the 1980s, scientists have noticed a decline in amphibian populations. Although many animals are affected by humans, amphibians have been hit particularly hard. Some scientists believe this is because of their two-stage life cycle. Unlike most animals, amphibians live their lives in two distinct stages. The first is aquatic and the second is terrestrial. This means amphibians are sensitive to environmental changes in the water and on land. They also have permeable skin, which means that toxins and chemicals can easily get into their bodies.

At first, some scientists did not believe that human pollution was the cause for changes in amphibian populations. These scientists believed that every species on Earth goes through natural cycles and changes and that there was not enough long-term data to prove that humans were the problem. In recent years, this has changed. Almost all biologists are concerned about the decline in amphibian populations. They are worried not only because many amphibians may go extinct, but also because these extinctions

will affect other plants and animals in ecosystems. They believe that the decline in amphibian populations is a warning to humans to stop polluting and clean up Earth.

124. Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage?

A. Endangered reptiles                                           B. Endangered amphibians

C. Amphibian life cycle                                           D. Amphibians and reptiles

125. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?

A. The number of amphibians is decreasing rapidly.

B. The number of amphibians is increasing.

C. The number of amphibians is going up.

D. The number of amphibians staying constant.

126. In paragraph 2, the word noticed is closest in meaning to ____.

A. studied                  B. analysed               C. become aware of             D. started to work on

127. In paragraph 2, the word they refers to ____.

A. scientists               B. humans                C. animals                             D. amphibians

128. According the passage, which of the following is TRUE about amphibians?

A. First they live on land, then in the water. B. First they live in the water, then on land.

C. They mainly live in water.                                  D. They mainly live on land.

129. In paragraph 2, the word toxins is closest in meaning to ____.

A. poisonous substances   B. tonic substances C. essential minerals  D. essential vitamins

130. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Amphibians contribute greatly to biodiversity.

B. All amphibians will go extinct in the near future.

C. A clean environment may help to protect amphibians from extinction.

D. Protecting amphibians is the responsibility of all people on Earth.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

SCIENCE FLYING IN THE FACE OF GRAVITY

It looked just like another aircraft from the outside. The pilot told his young passengers that it was built in 1964, a Boeing KC-135 refuelling tanker, based on the 707. But appearances were deceptive, and the 13 students from Europe and the USA who boarded the aircraft were in for the flight of their lives.

Inside, the area that normally had seats had become a long white tunnel. Heavily padded from floor to ceiling; it looked a bit like a lunatic asylum. There were almost no windows, but lights along the padded walls eerily illuminated it. Most of the seats had been taken out apart from a few at the back, where the young scientists quickly took their places with a look of apprehension.

From 12 months, science students from across the continents had competed to win a place on the flight at the invitation of the European Space Agency. The challenge had been to suggest imaginative experiments to be conducted in weightless conditions. For the next two hours the Boeing's flight resembled that of an enormous bird which had lost its reason, shooting upwards towards the heavens before hurting towards Earth. The intention was to achieve weightlessness for a few seconds.

The aircraft took off smoothly enough, but any feelings that I and the young scientists had that we were on anything like a scheduled passenger service were quickly dismissed when the pilot put the plane into a 45-degree climb which lasted around 20 seconds. Then the engine cut out and we became weightless. Everything became confused, and left or right, up or down no longer had any meaning. After 10 seconds of free-fall descent, the pilot pulled the aircraft out of its nosedive. The return of gravity was less immediate than its loss, but was still sudden enough to ensure that some students came down with a bump.

After two hours of going up and down in the plane doing experiments, the predominant feeling was one of exhilaration rather than nausea. Most of the students thought it was an unforgettable experience and one they would be keen to repeat.

106. What does the writer say about the plane?

A. It had no seats.                                                    B. It had no windows.

C. The inside was painted white.                          D. The outside was misleading

107. What does the word eerily in paragraph 2 mean?

A. badly                      B. brightly                              C. clearly                               D. strangely

108. What did the pilot do with the plane?

A. He climbed and made the plane turn over.

B. He climbed and made the plane fall slowly.

C. He quickly climbed and stopped the engines.

D. He took off normally and then cut the engines for 20 seconds.

109. What does the word it in the last paragraph refer to?

A. the exhilaration               B. the opportunity                 C. the plane              D. the trip

110. Why was this passage written?

A. To encourage young people to take up science.

B. To describe the outcome of a scientific competition.

C. To report on a new scientific technique.

D. To show scientists what young people can do.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The word “robot” first appeared in a 1921 stage play by Czech writer Karel Capek. In the play, a man makes a machine that can think, which he calls a robot and which ends up killing its owner. In the 1940s, the American science fiction writer, Isaac Asimov, wrote a series of stories about robots and invented the term 'robotics', the science of robots. Meanwhile, in the real world, the first robots were developed by an engineer, Joseph F. Engelberger, and an inventor, George C. Devol. Together they started Unimation, a manufacturing company that produced the first real robot in 1961, called the Unimate. Robots of this type were installed at a General Motors automobile plant and proved to be a success. They worked reliably and saved money for General Motors, so other companies were soon acquiring robots as well.

These industrial robots were nothing like the terrifying creatures that can often be seen in science fiction films. In fact, these robots looked and behaved nothing like humans. They were simply pieces of computer-controlled machines, with metal "arms" or "hands". Since they were made of metal, they could perform certain jobs that were difficult or dangerous for humans, particularly jobs that involve high heat. And since robots were tireless and never got hungry, sleepy, or distracted, they were useful for tasks that would be tiring or boring for humans. Industrial robots have been improved over the years, and today they are used in many factories around the world. Though the use of robots has meant the loss of some jobs, at the same time other jobs have been created in the design, development, and production of the robots.

Outside of industry, robots have also been developed and put into use by governments and scientists in situations where humans might be in danger. For example, they can be sent in to investigate an unexploded bomb or an accident at a nuclear power plant. Researchers also use robots to collect samples of hot rocks or gases in active volcanoes. In space exploration, robots have performed many key tasks where humans could not be present, such as on the surface of Mars. In 2004, two robotic Rovers, small six-wheeled computerized cars, were sent to Mars.

111. When did the word robot appear?

A. before the 1920s                                     B. in the early 1920s

C. in the mid-1920s                                     D. in the late 1920s

112. Which of these statements is TRUE about Karel Capek?

A. He is a famous American playwright.

B. He was the first to create the word “robot”.

C. He invented a machine that can think like humans.

D. He made a robot kill a person.

113. What does the word they in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. terrifying creatures                      B. humans               

C. science fiction films        D. industrial robots

114. What are industrial robots like?

A. They are computer-controlled machines.                   B. They are built with metal arms and legs.

C. They behave like humans.                                            D. They can think like humans.

115. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of robots?

A. They never need food to survive.                     B. They can survive without any sleep.

C. They are tired like humans.                  D. They can do jobs involving intense heat.

116. What can be inferred from the passage about robots?

A. Their appearance negatively affects the job market.

B. They can stop active volcanoes from erupting.

C. They help humans travel to the outer space.

D. They take away some jobs but offer some in return.

117. Which of the following best paraphrases the sentence in bold in the first paragraph?

A. Because they were reliable and economical to General Motors, other companies started to use robots.

B. Other companies started to produce reliable and efficient robots for General Motors.

C. Every other company made use of robots because they were time-consuming and safe.

D. Robots worked well for General Motors, but caused certain trouble to others.

118. What is the author's attitude towards robots in this passage?

A. He appreciates them.                                         B. He dislikes them.

C. He thinks they are a nuisance.                                     D. He is crazy about them.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

MODERN SCIENCE

It seems entirely (119) ____ to us that there are teams of scientists in universities and (120) ____ institutions around the world, attempting to (121) ____ the way the world works. However, it hasn't always been that (122) ____. Although the scientific method is now four or five hundred years old, the ancient Greeks, for example, believed that they could work out the (123) ____ of natural events just by the power of thought.

During the 17^th century, more and more people began to realize that they could (124) ____ their scientific ideas by designing a relevant (125) ____ and seeing what happened. A lot of (126) ____ was made in this way by individual scientists. These men and women often worked alone, carrying out (127) ____ into many different areas of science, and they often received very little (128) ____ for their hard work. (129) ____ the start of the 20^th century, though, it became (130) ____ that science was becoming more complicated and more expensive. This individual scientist disappeared, to be replaced by highly qualified teams of experts. Modern science was born.

119. A. natural                      B. physical                C. unreal                    D. typical

120. A. another                     B. every                     C. other                      D. whole

121. A. construct                  B. create                    C. discover                D. invent

122. A. method                     B. route                      C. technique             D. way

123. A. aims                          B. causes                  C. purposes              D. reasons

124. A. calculate                  B. collect                    C. measure               D. test

125. A. analysis                    B. attempt                  C. experiment           D. event

126. A. development           B. evolution               C. movement            D. progress

127. A. discovery                 B. education             C. experiment           D. research

128. A. present                     B. gift                          C. prize                      D. reward

129. A. At                              B. In                            C. On                          D. For

130. A. accurate                   B. actual                    C. clear                      D. True

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

A MORE COMMERCIAL TUNE

Roger Press, 40, has changed his career. After spending five years (106) ____ a concert pianist he has gone into business, recently (107) ____ up his own company. "After leaving university I decided to (108) ____ myself to a career in music. I loved performing but it was very hard (109) ____. I played at concerts in Europe and America, made recordings and got good (110) ____. But after a while I felt I had gone as (111) ____ as I could. Unless you are one of the world's top pianists, it's difficult to earn a good (112) ____ and I wasn't one of the greatest.

When I (113) ____ up my performing career, people around me were more sad and disappointed than I was. But I felt free and (114) ____ I knew I was getting serious about life. After getting a (115) ____ in business administration I joined the recording company EMI and started their classical video division, producing programs about famous artists. A year ago I left EMI and formed a new company, New Media System, which (116) ____ in multimedia programs.

Now that I run my own business I'm in control of my life and I feel proud of my achievements. Although the stress is high and I work (117) ____ hours, the stress involved in piano playing was much worse. It took physical, emotional and mental skills. I prefer the pressures I live with now.'

106. A. like                B. working                 C. how                                   D. as

107. A. giving           B. setting       C. forming                  D. bringing

108. A. devote          B. take            C. assign       D. employ

109. A. job                 B. effort                      C. work                       D. career

110. A. reviews         B. critics                     C. reports                  D. praise

111. A. soon             B. often                      C. far                          D. much

112. A. life                 B. living                      C. money                   D. payment

113. A. took               B. brought                 C. gave                      D. put

114. A. lastly             B. at last                     C. at the end             D. lately

115. A. qualification             B. title             C. graduate               D. grade

116. A. specializes  B. focuses                 C. concentrates        D. dedicates

117. A. overtim         B. large                      C. long                                   D. bonus

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

LINDA GREENLAW: SWORDFISH FISHERMAN

Not only does Linda Greenlaw do one of the most dangerous jobs in the world, but also does it extremely well. She has been described as ‘one of the best captains on the entire East Coast’ and that, in one of the leading countries in the fishing industry, is praise indeed.

Linda was born and brought up on Isle au Haut, a tiny island ten kilometers off the coast of Maine, USA. She fell in love with fishing as a child, and she worked on fishing boats during her summer breaks from college.

Her first opportunity to go on a deep-sea fishing trip came when she was nineteen. Alden Leeman, a man she'd never met before, hired her for thirty days on his sword-fishing boat. The trip was a success and eventually Alden offered Linda her first boat to captain in 1986, which probably made her the only woman ever to captain a sword-fishing boat.

So, why did she take up swordfishing in the first place? Linda says that not only does she like the way she feels on a boat, but she also gets passionate about catching a fish. More than anything, she's proud of being a fisherman, even more so than she is of being a best-selling author.

Linda has published four books to date, the first of which, The Hungry Ocean, was top of the New York bestseller list for three months. In it, Linda tells the story of one fishing trip and narrates the adventures she experienced on board with her five-man crew, including bad weather, sickness, mechanical problems and, of course, the fish.

But the world of fish and fishing is a man's world and it's not easy to find a word to describe Linda Greenlaw. In her own words, she says: 'I am a woman. I am a fisherman. I am not a "fisherwoman”, “fisherlady", or "fishergirl”.’

118. Linda is ____.

A. American              B. British                    C. Canadian             D. Greek

119. Her first deep-sea fishing trip was ____.

A. when she was thirty  B. when she was a child  C. before she was twenty D. in 1986

120. Linda took up swordfishing because ____.

A. she needed to earn some money                    B. she wanted to become a best-selling author

C. all her family are fishermen                  D. she loves boats and catching fish

121. On the boat described in The Hungry Ocean ____.

A. there were five people                            B. there were six people

C. there were four people                           D. there were three people

122. Linda prefers to be described as ____.

A. a fisherwoman    B. a fisherlady          C. a fisherman         D. a fishergirl

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

A WRITER'S LIFE: G P TAYLOR

J. K. Rowling may be responsible for the revival of fantasy fiction. But her contemporary rivals, many of whom have benefited from her success, seem reluctant to give her credit for starting a trend. Philip Pullman, for example, points out that Northern Lights, the first volume in his trilogy His Dark Materials, was published a year before Harry Potter's adventures began. So it comes as a surprise when G P Taylor concedes that he only wrote a novel because of the enormous popularity of Harry Potter.

Taylor is the Yorkshire vicar who sold his motorbike to self-publish 2,000 copies of his first novel, Shadowmancer, a book that was subsequently picked up by publishers Faber and got to number one in the New York Times bestseller list. His novels conjure up dark, chilling worlds in which the super natural threatens to take over, yet he describes his life as a writer in flatly functional terms. For example, he is able to name the exact day that he became a novelist: March 21, 2002. 'It was one of those seminal moments in my life. Harry Potter was becoming very popular. And I thought, “This woman's written a book. I might write one." ’

‘I got a copy of Harry Potter, counted the number of words that were on the page, measured the width of the margin, counted the number of chapters in the book, how many pages were in the book and set my computer screen up so that it would have 468 Words on the page. My chapters were the same length as the Harry Potter chapters; I thought, “This must be how you write the book.”

The Harry Potter formula has its faults, of course. Stephen King was once asked what he thought of Rowling's novels. Were they thought-provoking'? King thought not. But did that matter, he wondered, in a 'fantasy-adventure aimed primarily at children and published in the heart of the summer vacation'? His conclusion was unequivocal: ‘Of course not. What kids on summer vacation want - and probably deserve - is simple, uncomplicated fun.'

Shadowmancer is a simple and uncomplicated fantasy - and Taylor, who is his own most effective critic, makes few further claims for the novel. 'It's a great story, but if I'd written it now, it would be a completely different book. In many ways, it's a clumsy classic. There are a lot of things in there that I would get rid of. And yet, I think that's the big attraction. It's because it's an incredible adventure story, written by a non-writer, just a storyteller.

Taylor returns to this distinction between writing and storytelling a number of times, distancing himself from grand and lofty ideas of the novelist's purpose. He describes himself as a 'fairly uneducated, council-house kid' who ran away to London as a teenager, ‘a bit of a chancer, with ideas above his station’. He read Dickens, lots of Orwell - 'they were trendy books to read' - and Kerouac. But he is uncomfortable talking at any length about favorite novels or influences beyond Rowling: 'I have not read all that many books. I'm not, you know, a very literate person.'

Taylor was a rock-music promoter in his twenties and remains a showman, happiest in front of a crowd. He describes the talks he gives in schools and at book festivals, dressed up as a sea captain or as an 18^th-century highwayman in a long black coat. ‘You're using your face, you're using your body, you're acting out what you're doing.’ The business of putting his thoughts in writing can be problematic in comparison. As a storyteller, in order to demonstrate shock or alarm to an audience he will "pause between sentences and showed a wide-eyed, staring face. But to describe that in English ...’

This impatience with the limitation of language can be a positive asset: in Tersia, Taylor's new fantasy, the speed of the narrative and the scale of the events that overwhelm the characters mean there is no time for the story to get bogged down. That said, it is unusual to hear a writer speak in such a dismissive way of his craft. Shadowmancer has been taken on by Universal Pictures, and Taylor does nothing to hide the fact that he thinks 'the movie's more exciting than the book’.

123. The writer says that many fantasy fiction writers would not agree that ____.

A. they have copies their ideas from J. K. Rowling

B. J. K. Rowling's success has contributed to their own

C. Fantasy fiction will remain fashionable for many years

D. J. K. Rowling is a writer of fantasy fiction in the true sense

124. The writer is surprised by ____.

A. the success of Taylor's books               B. the short time Taylor has been a writer

C. the number of books Taylor has published  D. Taylor's reasons for writing his first book

125. What aspect of the Harry Potter books does Taylor admit to imitating?

A. the writing style    B. the storylines                   C. the layout             D. the cover design

126. What does that in paragraph 4 refer to?

A. the Harry Potter formula                                    B. the novels' target audience

C. the timing of the novels' publication    D. the novels' failure to make people think

127. What does Taylor say about Shadowmancer?

A. He is aware of its limitations.                            B. He did not write all of it himself.

C. He is going to write a revised edition.             D. It does not deserve the praise it receives.

128. What opinion does Taylor have of himself?

A. He is very proud of his achievement as a writer.

B. He thinks he is a better writer than J. K. Rowling.

C. He does not regard himself as a serious novelist.

D. He feels he deserves greater recognition.

129. What do we learn about the talks Taylor gives?

A. He enjoys them more than being a promoter.            B. He couldn't do them without dressing up.

C. He finds them easier than writing.                               D. He likes shocking people.

130. What does the writer mean by there is no time for the story to get bogged down (the last paragraph)?

A. The story moves on too quickly.

B. The plot is never prevented from developing.

C. Emotions are not dealt with in sufficient detail.

D. The story is not always as exciting as it could be.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

CRITICISM

It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however (106) ____ you are. One thing you have to be (107) ____of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is full of people who would rather say something negative than positive. If you've made up your (108) ____ to achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel, don't let the negative criticism of others (109) ____ you from reaching your target, and let constructive criticism have positive (110) ____ on your work. If someone says you're totally (111) ____ in talent, ignore them. That's negative criticism. If, however, someone (112) ____ you to revise your work and gives you good reasons for doing so, you should (113) ____ their suggestions carefully. There are many film stars who were once out of (114) ____. There are many famous novelists who made a complete (115) ____ of their first novel - or who didn't, but had to (116) ____ approaching hundreds of publishers before they could get it published. Being successful does depend on luck, to a certain extent. But things are more likely to (117) ____ well if you persevere and stay positive.

106. A. talented                    B. invested                C. mixed                    D. workable

107. A. alert                          B. clever                    C. intelligent             D. aware

108. A. mind                         B. brain                      C. thought                 D. idea

109. A. cease                       B. remove                  C. avoid                     D. prevent

110. A. outcome                   B. result                     C. effect                     D. consequence

111. A. lacking                      B. short                      C. missing                 D. absent

112. A. suggests                  B. advises                  C. proposes              D. explains

113. A. think                          B. consider                C. look round            D. take

114. A. career                       B. business               C. job                          D. work

115. A. mess                         B. rubbish                C. trash                      D. garbage

116. A. put off                       B. bank on                 C. keep on                 D. drop in on

117. A. turn out                     B. come into              C. deal with               D. sail through

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Although I left university with a good degree, I suddenly found that it was actually quite hard to find a job. After being unemployed for a few months, I realized I had to take the first thing that came along or I'd be in serious financial difficulties. And so, for six very long months, I became a market research telephone interviewer.

I knew it wasn't the best company in the world when they told me that I'd have to undergo three days of training before starting work, and that I wouldn't get paid for any of it. Still, I knew that the hourly rate when I actually did start full time would be a lot better than unemployment benefit, and I could work up to twelve hours a day, seven days a week if I wanted. So, I thought of the money I'd earn and put up with three days of unpaid training. Whatever those three days taught me - and I can't really remember anything about them today - I wasn't prepared for the way I would be treated by the supervisors.

It was worse than being at school. There were about twenty interviewers like myself, each sitting in a small, dark booth with an ancient computer and a dirty telephone. The booths were around the walls of the fifth floor of a concrete office block, and the supervisors sat in the middle of the room, listening in to all of our telephone interviews. We weren't allowed to talk to each other, and if we took more than about two seconds from ending one phone call and starting another, they would shout at us to hurry up and get on with our jobs. We even had to ask for permission to go to the toilet. I was amazed how slowly the day went. Our first break of the day came at eleven o'clock, two hours after we started. I'll always remember that feeling of despair when I would look at my watch thinking, 'It's must be nearly time for the break', only to find that it was quarter to ten and that there was another hour and a quarter to go. My next thought was always, 'I can't believe I'm going to be here until nine o'clock tonight.'

The most frightening aspect of the job was that I was actually quite good at it. 'Oh, no!' I thought. ‘Maybe I'm destined to be a market researcher for the rest of my life.' My boss certainly seemed to think so. One day - during a break, of course - she ordered me into her office. 'Simon,' she said, 'I'm promoting you. From tomorrow, you're off telecoms and onto credit card complaints. I'm sure you can handle it. There's no extra pay, but it is a very responsible position.'

Three weeks later, I quit. It was one of the best decisions I've ever made.

118. Why did the writer become a market research telephone interviewer?

A. He had completely run out of money. B. He had the right university degree for the job.

C. It was the first job he was offered.       D. He knew it was only for six months.

119. The writer had doubts about the company when ____.

A. they only offered him three days of training

B. they told him he wouldn't receive payment for his training

C. they told him he had to be trained first

D. he was told what the hourly rate would be

120. His workplace could be best described as ____.

A. large and noisy                                        B. silent and dirty

C. untidy and crowded                                D. old-fashioned and uncomfortable

121. How did he feel when he realized it wasn't time for the break yet?

A. He felt that he would have to go home early.

B. He felt that he wouldn't survive to the end of the day.

C. He felt that the end of the day seemed so long away.

D. He felt that he must have made a mistake.

122. What was unusual about Simon's promotion?

A. It showed how good he was at his job. B. It meant he would be phoning different people.

C. It involved greater responsibility.          D. There was no increase in salary.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

THE SECRETARY

In olden days, when a glimpse of stocking was looked upon as something far too shocking to distract the serious work of an office, secretaries were men.

Then came the First World War and the male secretaries were replaced by women. A man's secretary became his personal servant, charged with remembering his wife's birthday and buying her presents; taking his suits to the dry-cleaners; telling lies on the telephone to keep people he did not wish to speak to at bay; and, of course, typing, filing and taking shorthand.

Now all this may be changing again. The microchip and high technology is sweeping the British office, taking with it much of the routine clerical work that secretaries did. "Once office technology takes over generally, the status of the job will rise again because it will involve only the high-powered work - and then men will want to do it again."

That was said by one of the executives (male) of one of the biggest secretarial agencies in this country. What he has predicted is already under way in the US. One girl described to me a recent temporary job placing men in secretarial jobs in San Francisco, she noted that all the men she dealt with appeared to be gay so possibly that is just a new twist to the old story.

Over here, though, there are men coming onto the job market as secretaries. Classically, girls have learned shorthand and typing and gone into a company to seek their fortune from the bottom - and that's what happened to John Bowman. Although he joined a national grocery chain as secretary to its first woman senior manager, he has since been promoted to an administrative job.

"I filled in the application form and said I could do audio/typing, and in fact I was the only applicant. The girls were reluctant to work for this young, glamorous new woman with all this power in the firm.

I did typing at school, and then a commercial course. I just thought it would be useful finding a job. I never got any funny treatment from the girls, though I admit I've never met another male secretary. But then I joined the Post Office as a clerk and fiddled with the typewriter, and wrote letters, and thought that after all secretaries were getting a good £ 1,000 a year more than clerks like me. There were a shortage at that time, you see.

It was simpler working for a woman than for a man. I found she made decisions, she told everybody what she thought, and there was none of that male bitchiness, or that stuff 'ring this number for me dear' which men go in for.

Don't forget we were a team - that's how I feel about it - not boss and servant but two people doing different things for the same purpose.”

One high technology has made the job of secretary less routine, will there be a male takeover? Men should beware of thinking that they can walk right into the better jobs. There are a lot of women secretaries who will do the job as well as them - not just because they can buy negligees for the boss's wife, but because they are as efficient and well-trained to cope with word processors and computers as men.

123. Before 1914 female secretaries were rare because they ____.

A. were less efficient than men                 B. wore stockings

C. were not as serious as men                  D. would have disturbed the other office workers

124. A female secretary has been expected, besides other duties, to ____.

A. be her boss's memory                                        B. do everything her boss asked her to

C. clean her boss's clothes                                    D. telephone her boss's wife

125. A secretary in the future will ____.

A. be better paid                                                       B. have less work to do

C. have higher status                                                          D. have more work to do

126. He was given his first job as a secretary because ____.

A. he had the best qualifications                           B. he was lucky

C. he wanted to work for a woman                                   D. no one else applied

127. He did a commercial course because he ____.

A. couldn't think of anything else to do                 B. thought it would help him to find a job

C. had done typing at school                                             D. wanted to become a secretary

128. When he was a post office clerk, secretaries were better paid because ____.

A. not many were looking for jobs                                     B. they were better trained

C. they had greater responsibility                         D. they worked longer hours

129. He found that working for a female boss was less ____.

A. boring                    B. easy                                   C. complicated                      D. frustrating

130. The writer believes that before long ____.

A. men and women will be secretaries     B. men will take over women's jobs as secretaries

C. men will better with machines              D. women will operate most office machines

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

LEARNING HOW TO LEARN AND THINK

What is the point of the education system? Although this question may seem ridiculous at first (106) ____, it is actually not stupid as it sounds. The reason it is (107) ____ trying to answer is that schools and university clearly (108) ____ academic achievement, passing exams and gaining (109) ____ much more than acquiring skills such as (110) ____ children or car maintenance. But why is it? Why do they neglect to teach (111) ____ skills at school?

One answer may be that schools don't (112) ____ to help us gain useful knowledge about the world. At school, what we are (113) ____ learning is how to learn effectively. The idea is that we can then (114) ____ use of that ability later on in life when we come to deal (115) ____ more practical aspects of day-to-day living.

However, some people argue that the (116) ____ system is in fact a failure because it doesn't actually teach children how to become good thinkers. Learning how to learn is one thing. Learning how to learn is one thing. Learning how to think is (117) ____ another.

106. A. glance                                  B. sight                       C. look            D. eye

107. A. cost                           B. value                     C. worth                     D. price

108. A. strain                        B. stress                    C. emphasis              D. emphasise

109. A. qualifications                       B. skills          C. qualities    D. personalities

110. A. increasing               B. rising                     C. growing                 D. raising

111. A. practice                    B. practical                C. impractical            D. imperfect

112. A. prospect                   B. exit                         C. exist                       D. insist

113. A. actually                     B. factually                C. gradually              D. virtually

114. A. work                          B. do                           C. take                        D. make

115. A. at                               B. with                        C. on                          D. to

116. A. corruptive                B. concurrent            C. current                  D. currency

117. A. quite                         B. quit                         C. quiet                      D. quietly

ĐÁP ÁN

106B 107C 108D 109A 110D 111B 112C 113A 114D 115B 116C 117A

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

During my last couple of years as a student here at Union High, I have noticed that there is nothing to do during our occasional free periods. Hanging around in the hallways or in the library with friends isn't productive or relaxing. The student body council noticed this as well and brought it to the attention of Mr. Swanson and the rest of the faculty. A meeting to discuss the issue occurred last Friday, February 10^th, in the all - school meeting room.

The faculty not only agreed that there wasn't much to do during these free periods, but also seemed determined to find a solution. The student body council and the faculty talked about different ideas for a long time. The faculty had noticed that some students don't like using their free periods for studying. Instead, they spend their time disrupting the students who want to study by being noisy in the library. By the end of the meeting, the faculty had decided to put a pool table and a ping pong table in our student lobby at the start of next semester.

I know some people will be concerned about getting their work done with these potential distractions, but I believe this will help us all in enjoying our time at school. I agree that it's important to complete our work but it is just as important to enjoy ourselves and to relax with our friends. School is already such a stressful place. It makes many students feel worried and anxious. We want our school to be a friendly place so that students want to come every day. Students should remember that this change will make the library a lot quieter. Because of this, the students who want to study will be able to do so in peace.

To all the students at Union High, I sincerely hope that you enjoy the new additions to our lobby. Hopefully, they will make our free periods a lot more relaxing. If you happen to have one of the same free periods as I do, then please challenge me to a game of pool!

118. What is the text mostly about?

A. Another choice for free periods at Union High

B. A chance to study in peace at Union High library

C. How students at Union High spend their free periods

D. A meeting at Union High about its new facilities

119. What is the meeting on February 10th about?

A. Students hanging around freely during free periods.

B. Ineffective time at the Union High library.

C. Finding a solution to spending free periods effectively.

D. Maintaining disciplines at Union High school.

Bolo 120. In paragraph 2, the word they refers to ____.

A. faculty members              B. some students     C. students' parents            D. council members

121. In paragraph 2, the word disrupting is closest in meaning to ____.

A. fighting                  B. insulting                C. corrupting                         D. interrupting

122. According to the author, new facilities ____.

A. make the school a stressful place                                B. make students worried

C. bring anxiety to students' parents                    D. make students relaxed during free periods

123. In paragraph 4, the word they refers to ____.

A. free periods          B. our friends            C. new additions      D. all the students

ĐÁP ÁN

118A 119C 120B 121D 122D 123C

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Twenty-five students from Walling School are currently living in France. They are there for three months as part of a living-abroad project. The 16- and 17-year-old students are living with French families and attending a French school. Most of the students have taken French language classes for 3 or 4 years and are finally getting an opportunity to use their French.

Not only are students learning a new language, but they are learning about a new culture, too. Students have been particularly surprised about the French attitude towards food. "They won't leave anything on their plate," says Vanessa Athol. “They aren't wasteful at all.” Vanessa has vowed to be more careful with waste when returning to the United States.

The group's chaperone, Mrs. Smith, has been pleased with the students' acquisition of language. "Even the most timid are trying their best to speak. The students are learning a lot. I'm very impressed," she said. Mrs. Smith added that she thinks living with a French family makes a difference because students are forced to speak French. “We are all very grateful to the French families who are hosting us.”

The French families are happy to have the students, as they are getting to learn about American culture. Both groups will be celebrating the exchange at a large potluck dinner at the end of the stay. There will be a slide show of memories and the students will speak about their experiences. Currently, the American students are periodically posting pictures and student essays on the Walling School website. "Living in France is an experience I'll never forget," writes student Tina Davis. "I know I'll want to eat these croissants and this Camembert for the rest of my life!"

124. Which title would be the most suitable for this article?

A. French Families Love America

B. Student Tina Davis Lives in France

C. Walling School Website Posts Student Essays

D. Walling School Students Stay Abroad in France

125. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?

A. Students from Walling School are now staying in the USA.

B. These students are immigrants from the USA.

C. Walling School students are now staying with French families.

D. Walling School students are applying for jobs in France.

126. What can be implied about the culture in France?

A. It scares the students.                            B. It requires fluency in French.

C. It can be learned from a book.              D. It's different from the culture in America.

127. In paragraph 2, the word vowed is closest in meaning to ____.

A. promised               B. saved                    C. received                D. changed

128. In paragraph 3, the word acquisition is closest in meaning to ____.

A. speaking               B. gaining                  C. purchase              D. responsibility

129. Based on the passage, what does Mrs. Smith probably think about the French language?

A. It is more beautiful than Spanish.

B. It is very important for international communication.

C. It's best to learn it from a French family in France.

D. It is something each and every student needs to know.

130. According to the passage, how will the students conclude their stay?

A. They will take a French exam.                          B. They will have a party together.

C. They will visit Paris together.                            D. They will stay in hostel together.

ĐÁP ÁN

124D  125C 126D 127A 128B 129C 130B

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Mời các em tham khảo các tài liệu có liên quan:

• Bộ câu hỏi rèn luyện ngữ pháp và từ vựng Unit 1-3 Tiếng Anh 12
• Bài tập ôn tập hè Unit 2 lớp 12 - Cultural Diversity
• Bài tập ôn tập hè Unit 1 lớp 12 - Home life

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