Đề thi HSG cấp trường môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020 có đáp án trường THCS Tân Thành

TRƯỜNG THCS TÂN THÀNH

TỔ KHOA HỌC XÃ HỘI

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6

Năm học: 2020-2021

(Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút)

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts)

Favorite Colours

My (1)……………….. favorite colour is purple. There are not a lot of (2)………………..that are purple, some grapes are purple, sometimes the sky looks purple.

My second favorite colour is blue. Some things are blue, the sky is blue, and water is blue.

Many people have blue (3)………………...

Green is a (4)……………….. common colour in nature. Trees are green in the (5)……………….., some trees are green all year long, grass is green, sometimes (6)……………….. looks green. Many People have green eyes. Many vegetables are green. Broccoli, cabbage, beans, lettuce, peas, and cucumbers are all green. Green (7)……………….. are very good for you.

Yellow is a bright colour. The (8)……………….. looks yellow. Bananas are yellow. Some people have yellow (9)………………... Daffodils and dandelions are yellow.

White is a common colour, especially in the (10)………………... Snow is white. Clouds are white. Polar bears, some dogs and some (11)……………….. are white. There are white flowers that grow.

Some (12)……………….. are red. Roses can be red. Blood is red. Sometimes the sky is red at night or in the morning.

Artists use all these colours to (13)……………….. beautiful paintings. Nature used all these colours to make the beautiful earth. We are fortunate to be surrounded by (14)………………...

We should do our part to make sure that nature stays beautiful and (15)………………..

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. market              B. yard                        C. garden                    D. warm

17. A. hungry              B. white                       C. behind                     D. ahead

18. A. about                B. young                     C. account                   D. sound

19. A. station               B. intersection             C. question                  D. destination

20. A. languages         B. changes                   C. becomes                 D. washes

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. animal              B. buffalo                    C. banana                    D. minibus

22. A. cabbage            B. chicken                   C. gymnast                  D. arrive

23. A. dangerous         B. bakery                     C. engineer                  D. difficult

24. A. afternoon          B. restaurant                C. accident                  D. badminton

25. A. shoulder           B. matter                     C. temple                     D. behind

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. I and my brothers don’t like beer but my parents.........................

A. does                        B. are                           C. do                           D. don’t

27. Most of us enjoy ........................ to different places in Viet Nam and in the world.

A. travel                      B. traveling                 C. of traveling             D. to traveling

28. Salesgirl: “How ......................... apples would you like?”

Thuy: - “A dozen. And ......................... cooking oil, please.”

A. much, some            B. much, any               C. many, any               D. many, some

29. Do you and your little sister go to school ......................... foot or ......................... bike?

A. in - on                     B. by - on                    C. by - on                    D. on - by

30. Look ........................ that old woman! She is looking ......................... Huy but he isn’t here.

A. at - at                      B. for - at                     C. at - after                  D. at - for

31. Remember that you must......................... at any intersection.

A. slow down              B. speed up                 C. ride quickly            D. go fast

32. We do hope that the ......................... can repair our car quickly.

A. architect                 B. teacher                    C. farmer                     D. mechanic

33. Look! ......................... your classmates are singing and dancing!

A. What beautifully    B. What beautiful        C. How beautiful        D. How beautifully

34. Count ......................... one ......................... fifty, please!

A. from - to                 B. on - to                     C. till - to                     D. from - on

35. My cousin is not doing ......................... in the garden, just walking with her dog.

A. something               B. one thing                C. anything                 D. nothing

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. I’m scared when I sit on Tu’s motorbike because he drives …...................... CARE

37. We greet my new friends in a .....................................way. FRIEND

38. What does your father do? - He is a ..................................... POLICE

39. My birthday is on the ..................................... of January. TWELVE

40. Are Mr. Quang and Mr. Hung .....................................? BUSINESS

41. Air .....................................is a big problem in many cities in the world. POLLUTE

42. Mary likes attending the English ......................... contests. SPEAK

43. All of us are are very good ..................................... STUDY

44. There are two .....................................in his office. SECRETARY

45. There are so many colourful .....................................in this pond. FISH

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. The sun (rise) .................................in the East or in the West, Mom?

- In the East, my dear!

47. Look! The plane is flying toward the airport. It (land) .................................

48. My elder brother never closes the door before (leave) .................................the house.

49. Which language(s) your children (speak).................................? - French and English.

50. (not throw) .................................trash on the street!

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (100.2 = 2.0 pts)

MY WORKING DAY

On week days, I often get up at seven a.m. I don’t like to get up early, (51)......................... I have to, because I have a lot of (52) ........................ to do during the day.

I do my morning exercises, (53) ........................ my bed, wash myself, dress and go to the dinning room to have breakfast. My mother usually prepares breakfast, but sometimes I do it myself. I do not like big breakfasts, I (54)........................ a cup of coffee and a sandwich.

Then I go to school. It is rather far (55) ......................... my house and I go there by bus. I have classes till half past four. I come home and have dinner at around 6.30. After that I do my homework and do some work in the house. I sweep the floor, dust the (56)......................... and clean the carpets with the vacuum-cleaner. Sometimes, my mother (57)......................... me to go shopping or to help her in the kitchen.

After that, I have free time. I go for a walk with my friend, watch TV, read books, or play computer games. Then I have (58) ......................... with my family. I like evenings very much because (59) ......................... of us get together after work, study and have the opportunity to (60) ......................... about our family affairs. I usually go to bed at about eleven o'clock.

51. A. and                   B. but                          C. so                            D. then

52. A. job                    B. work                       C. career                      D. employment

53. A. do                     B. clean                       C. make                       D. wash

54. A. has                    B. want                        C. need                        D. prefer

55. A. from                 B. with                        C. to                            D. of

56. A. cup                   B. dish                         C. cooker                     D. furniture

57. A. asks                  B. advise                     C. offers                      D. waits

58. A. meal                 B. breakfast                 C. lunch                       D. dinner

59. A. every                B. each                        C. all                           D. one

60. A. speak                B. say                          C. tell                          D. talk

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

Every year students from many countries (61)………….……….. English. Some of these (62)………….……….. young children. Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn (63)………….……….. schools, others study (64)………….……….. themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in films, (65)………….……….. television, or in the office. Most (66)………….……….. must work hard to learn another language.

Many (67)………….……….. and girls learn English at school because it is one of their (68)………….………... They study their own language, Mathematics, and English. In England, America, or Australia many boys and girls study foreign (69)………….………..,

perhaps French, German, or Spanish. Many people learn English because they want to read newspapers or magazines (70)………….……….. English.

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Do you know anything about “Antarcnica”? ...

Antarcnica is a snow-covered continent. The average temperature at the South Pole is -50°C. Few plants and animals can live on the land because it is too cold for them. There are a few scientists from different countries who live and work on special bases in Antarctica. On midsummer’s day (On December 22nd), there is daylight for 24 hours and so during this period, only a few tourist ships and planes come to see this strange land. But in the winter there is no daylight for months. It must be a terrible place during the winter. The snow is always there – in the winter and in the summer, but in fact - little snow falls in the year (an average of about 12 -20 cm). People say that it can be a beautiful place. At first, it appears frightening but after a little time, some people fall in love with it.

71. What/ weather/ like/ Artarcnica?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

72. Why/ can/ few plants/ animals/ live/ Artarcnica?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

73. Where/ scientists/ come/ from?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

74. How many/ tourist ships/ planes/ come/ see / strange land?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

75. What/ always/ there/ winter/ summer?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..…..

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. No one in our school is stronger than my closed friend, Quan.

-> ………………………………………………………………………………… (strongest)

77. Our teacher of Math, Mr. Tung, rides his bike very carefully.

-> ……………………….…………………………………………………….…… (cyclist)

78. How much does a dozen ballpoint pens cost?

-> ……………………….……………………………………………………….…… (price)

79. Whose black shoes are those, Dieu Linh?

-> ……………………….…………………………………………………………. (belong)

80. Tom Baker is 45 kilograms in weight. Peter Pike is 50 kilograms in weight.

-> ……………………….…………………………………………………………… (than)

II. Write complete sentences, using the suggested words. (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Thuy’s brother/ live/ Ho Chi Minh City/ and/ have/ big/ toy store/ there.

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

82. Many plants/ animals/ Viet Nam/ around/ world/ danger/ because /people /destroying/ them.

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

83. My father / often / play/ chess/ his friends/ but / sometimes / play/ me.

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

84. The Bakers/ their friends/ travel/ Da Lat/ plane/ moment?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

85. my mother/ not/ need/ rice./ need/ half / kilo/ pork/ and/ dozen/ eggs.

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

III. Write an essay (120 words) about what you are going to do this summer: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. very 2. things 3. eyes 4. very 5. summer

6. water 7. vegetables 8. sun 9. hair 10. winter

11. cats 12. flowers 13. make 14. beauty 15. clean

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt)

16. D. warm 17. B. white 18. B. young 19. C. question 20. C. becomes

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. C. banana 22. D. arrive 23. C. engineer 24. A. afternoon 25. D. behind

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. C. do 27. B. traveling 28. D. many - some 29. D. on - by 30. D. at - for

31. A. slow down 32. D. mechanic 33. D. How beautifully 34. A. from - to 35. C. anything

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. carelessly 37. friendly 38. policeman 39. twelfth 40. businessmen

41. pollution 42. speaking 43. students 44. secretaries 45. fish

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Does...rise 47. is going to land 48. leaving 49. do…speak 50. Don’t/Do not throw

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (100.2 = 2.0 pts)

51. B. but 52. B. work 53. C. make 54. D. prefer 55. A. from

56. D. furniture 57. A. asks 58. D. dinner 59. C. all 60. D. talk

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (100.2 =2.0pts)

61. learn 62. are 63. at 64. by 65. on

66. people 67. boys 68. subjects 69. languages 70. in

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. What is the weather like in Artarcnica?

The weather (It) is very cold in Artarcnica.

72. Why can few plants and animals live in Artarcnica?

Because it is too cold for them.

73. Where do the scientists come from?

The scientists (They) come from different countries who live and work on special bases in Antarctica.

74. How many tourist ships and planes come to see this strange land?

Only a few tourist ships and planes come to see this strange land.

75. What is always there in the winter and the summer?

The snow is always there in the winter and the summer.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. My close friend, Quan, is the strongest (one/student) in our school.

77. Our teacher of Math, Mr. Tung, is a very careful cyclist.

78. What is the price of a a dozen ballpoint pens?

79. Who do those black shoes belong to, Dieu Linh?

80. Peter Pike is heavier than Tom Baker.

Or: Tom Baker is lighter than Peter Pike.

II. Write complete sentences, using the suggested words. (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Thuy’s brother live s in Ho Chi Minh City and he has a big toy store there.

82. Many plants and animals in Viet Nam and around the world are in danger because people are destroying them.

83. My father often plays chess with his friends, but sometimes he plays with me.

84. Are the Bakers and their friends traveling to Da Lat by plane at the moment?

85. My mother does not (doesn’t) need rice. She needs half a kilo of pork and a dozen eggs.

III. Write an essay (120 words) about what you are going to do this summer: (3.0 pts)

- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “The main activities the student is going to do…”. (0.5pt)

- The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining where to go; what to do in ganeral and in details…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words... (2,0 pts)

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas. (0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

- Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

---

Trên đây là toàn bộ nội dung Đề thi HSG cấp trường môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020 có đáp án trường THCS Tân Thành. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang Chúng tôi để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong kì thi chọn học sinh giỏi sắp đến.

Chúc các em học tốt! 

Các em học sinh quan tâm có thể tham khảo tài liệu cùng chuyên mục:

Tham khảo thêm

Bình luận

Có Thể Bạn Quan Tâm ?