Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2021 Trường THCS Tam Quan Bắc

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 NĂM 2021

TRƯỜNG THCS TAM QUAN BẮC

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Subjects

There are many subjects that you can (1) ..................................... at school. 

My favorite subject is music. I like to (2) ..................................... and to play the clarinet. 

I also like art. I am quite good at drawing and (3) ...................................... 

History is a good subject. I like (4) ..................................... about the past. 

Geography is very interesting. We look at many (5) ..................................... in geography.   

We learn where there are (6) ..................................... and mountains.    

I know the (7) .....................................  of all the continents and all the oceans. 

Mathematics is my (8) .....................................  favorite subject. 

I am not very good with numbers. I am good at (9) .....................................  and subtraction, 

but I am not good at division and multiplication. 

In my school we learn to speak (10) ...................................... 

We learn French (11) .....................................  Canada has French and English-speaking citizens. English literature is a good (12) ...................................... 

I enjoy reading books. I also like to (13) ..................................... compositions and poetry. 

Science is my brother's favorite subject. He is interested in (14) ....................................., and he likes to do experiments. We also take drama at my school. 

I (15) ..................................... to act. I got the lead role in the school play.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)        

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

16. A. energy              B. pagoda                    C. programme D. goggles

17. A. charity              B. exchange                C. character                 D. peach blossom

18. A. design               B. serious                    C. president                 D. overseas

19. A.  languages        B. dresses                    C. watches                  D. becomes

20. A. symbol              B. robot                       C. popular                   D. remote

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. about	B. common	C. weather	D. building
22. A. landmark	B. creature	C. channel	D. arround
23. A. terrible	B. equipment	C. remember	D. exhausted
24. A. newsreader	B. furniture	C. continent	D. marathon
25. A. waterfall	B. educate	C. appearance	D. beautiful

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. We ............................ the cartoon “Tom and Jerry” many times.

A. see

B. saw

C. are seeing

D. have seen

27. My brother likes going to the cinema............................ I like watching TV at home.

A. but

B. and

C. or

D. because

28.  My sister, Thuy Linh, is the ............................ girl in her school.

A. as beautiful

B. more beautiful

C. beautifullest

D. most beautiful

29. What............................ you ............................ yesterday evening? – I stayed at home.

A. do - do

B. will - do

C. did - do

D. can - do

30. I like this programme because it is both entertaining ............................ educational.

A. or

B. and

C. so

D. but

31. My younger sister  ............................ home for school yet.

A. didn’t leave

B. don’t leave

C. hasn’t left

D. isn’t leaving

32. ............................ people go to the movies now than ten years ago.

A. Few

B. Fewer

C. Less

D. Lesser

33. Which animals are............................, dogs or dolphins?

A. intelligence

B. intelligent

C. more intelligent

D. most intelligent

34. People in many countries often wear their............................. clothes on the New Year day.

A. ordinary

B. summer

C. tradition

D. traditional

35. The father told her children: “............................ swim in this river. It’s a dangerous place.”

A. Do

B. Don’t

C. Not

D. Can’t

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. Nobody in our class is...................................at Math than my cousin, Bao.	GOOD
37. We held the Mid-Autumn festivals in the ...................................house.	CULTURE
38. Ba had an accident last week because he drove ...................................	CARE
39. Living in a city is ...................................than living in the countryside.	INTERESTING
40. Nam is very................................... He always has a lot of new ideas.	CREATE
41. When you open a newspaper, you’ll find.................................about games.	INFORM
42. Many cars in the future will run on...................................	ELECTRIC
43. I did many sports last week and was...................................	EXSHAUST
44. What is the correct..................................of this word, Lan? - I don’t know.	PRONOUCE
45.  ...................................is a very big problem in many countries.	POLLUTE

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Your father (buy) ..........................a ticket for the soccer match last week?

47. My future house will be on the ocean, it’ll (surround).......................... by blue sea.

48. It is not raining now. The sun (shine) ..........................and the sky is blue.

49. There are lots of gray clouds in the sky. It (rain) ..........................   

50. If I lend you some money, when you (repay) ..........................me?

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10  0.2  =  2.0 pts)

 These days it is important (51).......................... a newspaper without reading about the damage we are doing to the environment. Our earth is being threatened (52).......................... our future looks bad. (53).......................... can each of us do?

We cannot (54).......................... up our polluted rivers and seas overnight. Nor can we stop the (55).......................... of plants and animals. But we can stop adding to the problem while scientists look (56) .......................... answers.

I think that it may not be easy to change our lifestyle (57).......................... but some steps are easy for us to take: Cut down the amount of driving we do, or use as little plastic as possible. It is also easy to save (58) .........................., which also reduces household bills. We must all make a personal (59).......................... to work for the future of our planet if we want to ensure a better (60).......................... for our grandchildren.

51. A. to open             B. opened                    C. opening                   D. to open

52. A. so                      B. however                  C. and                          D. moreover

53. A. What                B. When                      C. Why                        D. Where       

54. A. clean                 B. cleaned                   C. to clean                   D. cleaning

55. A. appear               B. appearance             C. disappear    D. disappearance

56. A. for                    B. up                           C. after                        D. with

57. A. complete           B. completeness    C. completed        D. completely   

58. A. water                B. money                     C. energy                     D. health

59. A. decide               B. decisive                  C. deciding                  D. decision

60. A. city                    B. country                   C. continent                D. world

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

comedies                     rest                   programmes               7 o’clock news                 writers    

national                  relax                      game shows                 educational                       viewers

Television is available everywhere now and VTV1 is a (61) …………… television channel in Viet Nam. It attracts millions of (62) ……………  because it offers many different interesting programmes. The (63) ……………  tells people what is happening in Viet Nam and the (64) ……………  of the world. (65) …………… bring a lot of laughter and help people (66) …………… after a hard working day. The most exciting programmes are (67).…………… They can be both entertaining and (68). …………… 

Many people work hard every day to produce quality (69) …………… for television. Some of them are programme designers, (70) …………… and reporters.

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

A lovely house

My best friend, Mary, lives in a house near the sea. It is an old house, about over one hundred years old and it is very small. There are two bed rooms upstairs but no bathroom. The only bathroom is downstairs, next to the kitchen and there is a living room where there is a lovely old fireplace. There is a garden in front of the house. The garden goes down to the beach and in spring and summer there are a lot of beautiful flowers every where. Mary likes alone with his dog, Rack, but they have a lot of visitors. Their city friends often come and stay with them.

Mary loves her house for many reasons: the beautiful garden, the flowers in summer, the fire in winter, but the best thing is the view from her bedroom window. Mary is now thinking of a new house in the future with the help of Robots.

71. How/ old/ Mary/ house/ ?/

  -> ………………………………..…………………………………………….……..……

      ………………………………………………………………..………….….……..……

72. Where/ bathroom/ ?/

  -> …………………..………………………………………………………….……..……

      ………………………………………………………………..………….….……..……

73. When/ there/lot/ beautiful/ flowers/ ?/

  -> ……………………………………………………………………………..……..……

       ……………………………………………………………………………..……..……

74. Who/ often/ come/stay/them/ ?/

  -> ……………………………………………………………………………..……..……

      ..………………………………………………………………………..…..….…..……

75. What/ reasons/ Mary/ love/ house/ for/ ?/

  -> ……………………….…………………………………………………….……..……

      ………………………………………………………………………..…….……..……

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words:

 (0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Learning how to use a computer is quite easy for my eldest brother.

-> It..................................................................................................................................?

77. No house in my village is more beautiful than Mr. Hoang’s house.

-> Mr. Hoang’s house.......................................................................................................

78. Mr. Tung’s children like watching cartoons very much. (Use “interested”)

->.......................................................................................................................................

79. The boys tried their best to play well. They didn’t win the soccer match.

-> ……………………….................although………….….…...........…………….…....

80. No planet in the Solar System is as big as Jupiter.   

-> Jupiter ………..………………………………………...……………………………

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. How often/ you/ practise/ play/ table tennis/ ?/

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….

82. You/ visit/ your grandparents/ the countryside/ last Sunday/ ?/

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….

83. There/ might not/meeting/ Friday/ because/ director/ ill/ ./

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….

84. Little girl/ often/ feel/ unhappy/ when/ get/ bad marks/ . /

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….

85. I/ not/ like/ that programme/ because/ so boring/ ./

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….

III. Write a paragraph (about 120 words) to describe how you and your family preparation for Tet: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..........…………….……………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..........…………….……………………..

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. take	2. sing	3. painting	4. learning	5. maps
6. deserts	7. names	8. least	9. addition	10. French
11. because	12. subject	13. write	14. plants	15. like

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. energy

17. C. character

18. B. serious

19. D. becomes

20. C. popular

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. about

22. D. arround

23. A. terrible

24. A. newsreader

25. C. appearance

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D. have seen	27. A. but	28. D. most beautiful	29. C. did - do	30. B. and
31. C. hasn’t left	32. B. Fewer	33. C. more intelligent	34. D. traditional	35. B. Don’t

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. better	37. cultural	38. carelessly	39. more interesting	40. creative
41. information	42. electricity	43. exshausted	44. pronunciation	45. pollution

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Did...buy

47. be surrounded

48. is shining

49. is going to rain

50. will...repay

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10  0.2  = 2.0 pts)

51. D. to open	52. C. and	53. A. What	54. A. clean	55. D. disappearance
56. A. for	57. D. completely	58. C. energy	59. D. decision	60. D. world

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

61. national	62. viewers	63. 7 o`clock news	64. rest	65. Comedies
66. relax	67. game shows	68. educational	69. programmes	70. writers

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. How old is Mary’s house?

-> It is about over one hundred years old.

72. Where is the bathroom?

-> The bathroom is downstairs, next to the kitchen.

73. When are there a lot of beautiful flowers?

-> (There are a lot of beautiful flowers) In spring and summer.

74. Who often come and stay with them?

-> Their city friends often come and stay with them.

75. What reasons does Mary love her house for?

-> Mary loves her house for many reasons: the beautiful garden, the flowers in summer, the fire in winter, but the best thing is the view from her bedroom window.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words:

(0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. It is quite easy for my eldest brother to learn how to use a computer.

77. Mr. Hoang’s house is the most beautiful house in my village.

78. Mr. Tung’s children are very interested in watching cartoons.

79. The boys didn’t win the soccer match although they tried their best to play well.

80. Jupiter is the biggest planet in the Solar System.

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. How often do you practise playing table tennis?

82. Did you visit your grandparents in the countryside last Sunday?

83. There might not be a meeting on Friday because the director is ill.

84. The little girl often feels unhappy when she gets bad marks. 

85. I didn’t like that programme because it was so boring.

III. Write a paragraph (about 120 words) to describe how you and your family preparation for Tet: (3.0 pts)  (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

  - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “How the family prepare for Tet.”.                                                                                                         (0.5 pt)

  - The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining about what you and your family do in general and in details before Tet holiday…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words...                                                                                                        (2,0 pts)

  - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas.                                                      (0.5 pt)

     * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

                        - Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).

                        - Correct vocabulary and structures.

                        - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/  ...).

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

  Favorite Colours

My (1)……………….. favorite colour is purple. There are not a lot of (2)………………..that are purple, some grapes are purple, sometimes the sky looks purple. 

My second favorite colour is blue. Some things are blue, the sky is blue, and water is blue. 

Many people have blue (3)………………... 

Green is a (4)……………….. common colour in nature. Trees are green in the (5)……………….., some trees are green all year long, grass is green, sometimes (6)……………….. looks green. Many People have green eyes. Many vegetables are green. Broccoli, cabbage, beans, lettuce, peas, and cucumbers are all green. Green (7)……………….. are very good for you. 

Yellow is a bright colour. The (8)……………….. looks yellow. Bananas are yellow. Some people have yellow (9)………………... Daffodils and dandelions are yellow. 

White is a common colour, especially in the (10)………………... Snow is white. Clouds are white. Polar bears, some dogs and some (11)……………….. are white. There are white flowers that grow. 

Some (12)……………….. are red. Roses can be red. Blood is red. Sometimes the sky is red at night or in the morning. 

Artists use all these colours to (13)……………….. beautiful paintings. Nature used all these colours to make the beautiful earth. We are fortunate to be surrounded by (14)………………...

We should do our part to make sure that nature stays beautiful and (15)………………..

  PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. market              B. yard            C. garden                    D. warm

17. A. hungry              B. white                      C. behind                    D. ahead

18. A. about                            B. young                     C. account                   D. sound

19. A. station              B. intersection C. question                  D. destination

20. A. languages                     B. changes                   C. becomes                  D. washes

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. animal	B. buffalo	C. banana	D. minibus
22. A. cabbage	B. chicken	C. gymnast	D. arrive
23. A. dangerous	B. bakery	C. engineer	D. difficult
24. A. afternoon	B. restaurant	C. accident	D. badminton
25. A. shoulder	B. matter	C. temple	D. behind

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. I and my brothers don’t like beer but my parents.........................

A. does

B. are

C. do

D. don’t

27. Most of us enjoy ........................ to different places in Viet Nam and in the world.

A. travel

B. traveling

C. of traveling

D. to traveling

28. Salesgirl: “How ......................... apples would you like?”

      Thuy:           - “A dozen. And ......................... cooking oil, please.”

A. much, some

B. much, any

C. many, any

D. many, some

29. Do you and your little sister go to school ......................... foot or ......................... bike?

A. in - on

B. by - on

C. by - on

D. on - by

30. Look ........................ that old woman! She is looking ......................... Huy but he isn’t here.

A. at - at

B. for - at

C. at - after

D.  at - for

31. Remember that you must......................... at any intersection.

A. slow down

B. speed up

C. ride quickly

D. go fast

32. We do hope that the ......................... can repair our car quickly.

A. architect

B. teacher

C. farmer

D. mechanic

33. Look! ......................... your classmates are singing and dancing!

A. What beautifully

B. What beautiful

C. How beautiful

D. How beautifully

34. Count ......................... one ......................... fifty, please!

A. from - to

B. on - to

C. till - to

D. from - on

35. My cousin is not doing ......................... in the garden, just walking with her dog.

A. something

B. one thing

C. anything

D. nothing

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. I’m scared when I sit on Tu’s motorbike because he drives …......................	CARE
37. We greet my new friends in a .....................................way.	FRIEND
38. What does your father do? - He is a .....................................	POLICE
39. My birthday is on the ..................................... of January.	TWELVE
40. Are Mr. Quang and Mr. Hung .....................................?	BUSINESS
41. Air .....................................is a big problem in many cities in the world.	POLLUTE
42. Mary likes attending the English ......................... contests.	SPEAK
43. All of us are are very good .....................................	STUDY
44. There are two .....................................in his office.	SECRETARY
45. There are so many colourful .....................................in this pond.	FISH

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. The sun (rise) .................................in the East or in the West, Mom?  

- In the East, my dear!

47. Look! The plane is flying toward the airport. It (land) .................................

48. My elder brother never closes the door before (leave) .................................the house.

49. Which language(s) your children (speak).................................?  - French and English.

50. (not throw) .................................trash on the street!

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. very	2. things	3. eyes	4. very	5. summer
6. water	7. vegetables	8. sun	9. hair	10. winter
11. cats	12. flowers	13. make	14. beauty	15. clean

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. D. warm

17. B. white

18. B. young

19. C. question

20. C. becomes

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. C. banana

22. D. arrive

23. C. engineer

24. A. afternoon

25. D. behind

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. C. do	27. B. traveling	28. D. many - some	29. D. on - by	30. D. at -  for
31. A. slow down	32. D. mechanic	33. D. How beautifully	34. A. from - to	35. C. anything

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10  0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. carelessly	37. friendly	38. policeman	39. twelfth	40. businessmen
41. pollution	42. speaking	43. students	44. secretaries	45. fish

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Does...rise

47. is going to land

48. leaving

49. do…speak

50. Don’t/Do not throw

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2  = 2.0 pts)

51. B. but	52. B. work	53. C. make	54. D. prefer	55. A. from
56. D. furniture	57. A. asks	58. D. dinner	59. C. all	60. D. talk

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 =2.0pts)

61. learn	62. are	63. at	64. by	65. on
66. people	67. boys	68. subjects	69. languages	70. in

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

 71. What is the weather like in Artarcnica?

The weather (It) is very cold in Artarcnica.

72. Why can few plants and animals live in Artarcnica?

Because it is too cold for them.

73. Where do the scientists come from?

The scientists (They) come from different countries who live and work on special bases in Antarctica.

74. How many tourist ships and planes come to see this strange land?

Only a few tourist ships and planes come to see this strange land.

75. What is always there in the winter and the summer?

The snow is always there in the winter and the summer.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. My closed friend, Quan, is the strongest (one/student) in our school.

77. Our teacher of Math, Mr. Tung, is a very careful cyclist.

78. What is the price of a a dozen ballpoint pens?

79. Who do those black shoes belong to, Dieu Linh?

80. Peter Pike is heavier than Tom Baker.

      Or: Tom Baker is lighter than Peter Pike.

II. Write complete sentences, using the suggested words. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Thuy’s brother live s in Ho Chi Minh City and he has a big toy store there.

82. Many plants and animals in Viet Nam and around the world are in danger because people  are destroying them.

83. My father often plays chess with his friends, but sometimes he plays with me.

84. Are the Bakers and their friends traveling to Da Lat by plane at the moment?

85. My mother does not (doesn’t) need rice. She needs half a kilo of pork and a dozen eggs.

III. Write an essay (120 words) about what you are going to do this summer: (3.0 pts)

  - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “The main activities the student is going to do…”.                                                                                              (0.5pt)

  - The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining where to go; what to do in ganeral and in details…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words...              (2,0 pts)

  - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas.                                                         (0.5 pt)

     * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

                        - Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).

                        - Correct vocabulary and structures.

                        - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/  ...).

PART ONE: LISTENING:

Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

My Flower Garden

My (1)…………………. is Anne. 

I love (2)…………………..  I have a flower garden. 

My garden is in (3)…………………. of my house. 

My (4)…………………. has a garden, too. 

My garden has different types (5)…………………. flowers. 

I have roses in my garden.  (6)…………………. have tulips in my garden. 

I have petunias (7)…………………. my garden. 

My garden (8)…………………. different colours. 

I plant (9)…………………. flowers. 

I plant orange flowers. I plant (10)…………………. flowers. 

I plant purple flowers. I (11)…………………. care of my garden. 

I (12)…………………. my garden every day. 

I kill (13)…………………. weeds in my garden. 

I kill insects (14)…………………. eat my flowers. 

I love my (15)………………….  garden.

PART TWO: PHONETICS:  (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

I. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others  by circling A, B, C, or D. (5 0,2=1,0 pt)

16.  A.  chair	B. school	C. couch	D. children
17.  A. game	B. change	C. vegetable	D. geography
18.  A. intersection	B. eraser	C. bookstore	D. history
19.  A. tenth	B. tooth	C. brother	D. theater
20.  A. boot	B. tooth	C. food	D. flood

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21.	A. forest	B. desert	C. building	D. mountain
22.	A. pastimes	B. classroom	C. housework	D. canteen
23.	A. hotel	B. remember	C. repeat	D.classroom
24.	A. dangerous	B. engineer	C. telephone	D. accident
25.	A. visit	B. unload	C. receive	D. correct

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.    (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts)

26. How…………. rice does he want?

A. many

B. much

C. any

D. about

27. I don’t like coffee but my brother………….

A. do

B. likes

C. does

D. would like

28. Ha ………….goes swimming in the winter because the winter is cold.

A. never

B. always

C. usually

D. often

29. I don’t want………….to Ho Chi Minh City because I’m very tired.

A. going

B. goes

C. go

D. to go

30. “Does Jane like………….?” – “Yes, She goes Jogging every morning.”

A. jog

B. to jog

C. jogs

D. jogging.

31. What……….…going by bike to the pagoda?

A. there

B. sport

C. about

D. time

32. Which supermarket………….?

A. do you want to go to.	B. do you want to go it
C. you want to go	D. do you want to go.

33. Where’s the chalk?

A. It’s hers

B. It’s on the table

C. It’s of the table

D. It’s mine

34. I don’t have………….apples but I have………….oranges.

A. any- any

B. some- any

C. some- some

D. any- some

35. Don’t throw trash into the river. It……….…water

A. plows

B. saves

C. damages

D. pollutes

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

 36. Our school children sometimes go ........................... on the weekend.        (CAMP)

 37. Mount Everest is very high. It is ............................ mountain in the world.     (HIGH)

 38. Lee comes from China. He speaks ............................                                           (CHINA)

 39.  Is the Underground in London ............................ than the Metro in Paris?      (GOOD)

 40. We must be .............................. when we cross the road.                                  (CARE)

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets.

(5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

41. Look!  The plane is flying towards the airport.  It (land) ……………….……

42. Ha’s father  (drive) ……………….……his car to the garage at the moment.

43. Mr. Tung is a teacher and he (not have).……………….……classes in the afternoon.

44. You mustn’t (eat) ……………….……food in this canteen.

45. Mrs. Thuy is cleaning the windows and doors. Let’s (help) ……………….……her.

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. name	2. flowers	3. front	4. neighbour	5. of
6. I	7. in	8. has	9. red	10. blue
11. take	12. water	13. the	14. that	15. beautiful

PART TWO: PHONETICS:  (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

16. B. school

17. A. game

18. B. eraser

19. C. brother

20. D. flood

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. C

22. D

23. D

24. B

25. A

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.    (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts)

26. B	27. C	28.A	29. D	30. D
31. C.	32. A	33.B	34. D	35. D

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

 36. camping    37. the highest             38. Chinese                 39. better                     40. Careful

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets.

(5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

41. is going to land

42. is driving

43. doesn’t have

44. eat

45. help

IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46.In  47-  at  48-with. 49- between 50- by

PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

51.B. are having	52. A. it’s	53.D. so	54.B. follow	55.D. get off
56.C. take	57.B. at	58.D.Turn right	59.B. welcome	60.D.to seeing

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

61. live                        62. an                          63. years                      64. There                     65. is   

66. garden       67. goes                       68. with                       69. reasons                  70. from

III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt):

71.T                 72.F                 73F                  74.T                 75.F

PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt)

76. B: are → is                      77. B: is → are                78. A: much → many

79. D: any → some               80. C: do → does

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words given in any way.  (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. There are forty-two classrooms  in our school .

82. My house is to the right of the bakery.                

83. Mr Minh is Trung’s father.

84. Huyen goes to school on foot every afternoon.   

85. He goes to work at a quarter past seven .

III.  Write a brief description about Viet Nam in about  80-100 words (3,0pts)

• Content: 0,8pts
• Length: 0,4pts
• Grammar and vocabulary: 0,8pts

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.

1. a. historic     b. exciting       c. island           d. firework

2. a. calendar   b. celebrate      c. decorate       d. school

3. a. wonder    b. compass       c. brother         d. forest

4. a. beach       b. teach            c. feather         d. peaceful

5. a. clothes     b. fireworks     c. scissors        d. mountains

II. Use the correct form of the words in CAPITAL to complete the sentences.

1. It is ……………………to go hiking in this area.                                                                   DANGER

2. Ha Long Bay is number one …………………wonder in Vietnam                                        NATURE

3. Mary is the ………...of the English speaking club in my class.                                              LEAD

4. Big cities in Vietnam are too busy and ……………..                                                              POLLUTE

5. Hoi An is a …………………………..city with a lot of old houses, shops and buildings.      HISTORY 

6. My trip to Phong Nha Ke Bang is ………………………experience.                                     FORGET 

7. There are many ……………festivals in Vietnam                                                              TRADITION

8. We should eat less fast food or junk food because they are ………………….                       HEALTH

9. Visitors come to Hue because there are many tourist …………………..                               ATTRACT 

10. We can take part in many outdoor …during the festival.                                                        ACT 

III. Choose the correct answer a, b, c, or d.

1. People often clean and decorate their houses ________ Tet.

a. during          b.after  c.before           d. on

2. Turn left at the first traffic lights, and you’ll see the supermarket straight ________.

a. away            b.ahead            c.aside d. again 

3. Mekong River is ________ river in South East Asia.

a. long b.longer           c.longest          d. the longest

4. You ________ speak during the exam - it’s forbidden.

a. should          b.shouldn’t      c.must  d. mustn’t

5. Some of her paintings are displayed at the local ________.

a. art gallery    b.museum        c.stadium         d. hospital

6. The Vietnamese ________ Tet at different times each year.

a. decorate       b. watch          c.celebrate       d. welcome

7. ________ we go out for dinner tonight? - Great!

a. Must            b.Can   c.Will   d. Shall

8. ________ does Tet last? ~ About 10 days.

a. When           b.How long     c.What time     d. How often

9. Life in the countryside is ________. There aren’t many things to do there.

a. interesting    b.inconvenient cboring            d.noisy

10. ‘Can you tell me the way to Tan Ky House please?’-‘________. Go straight, then turn right.’

a. Certainly      b.Let’s go        c.Good idea     d.My pleasure

IV.       Put the verbs In brackets into the correct tense or form.

1. Everybody      ________________ (cheer) and ________________ (sing) happily at the moment.

2. Sorry, I can’t come. I ________________ (be) very busy tomorrow.

3.  ________________ (they/ play) football this weekend?

4. Most students ________________ (not go) to school on Saturday.

5. You must ________________ (take) a boat ride around the island.

6.  After _______________ (get) up, children get dressed in new clothes and say wishes to their parents.

ĐÁP ÁN

I.          1. a      2. b      3. d      4. c      5. b

II.

1.DANGEROUS       

2.NATURAL 

3.LEADER    

4.POLLUTED

5.HISTORIC

6.UNFORGETTABLE         

7.TRADITIONAL    

8.UNHEALTHY       

9.ATTRACTIONS    

10.ACTIVITIES

III.       1. c      2. b      3. d      4. d      5. a      6. c      7. d      8. b      9. c      10. a

IV.       1. is cheering- singing 2. will be         3. Are they playing

            4. don’t go       5. take 6. getting

V.        1. busiest         2. crowded      3. natural         4. better

            5.beautifully    6.happiness

VI. 1. prepares →prepare       2. most highest→ highest

            3. interested → interesting      4.will they→ won’t they

            5.should → shouldn’t 6. gooder→better

VII.     1. You shouldn’t spend a lot of time watching TV.

            2.Antarctica is the coldest place in the world.

            3.Why don’t we go to Times Square to welcome the New Year?

           4.A car is more inconvenient than a bicycle in towns./ A car is not as convenient as a bicycle in towns.

            5.Take the first turning on the right.

VIII.    1. Vietnamese people often clean and decorate their houses at Tet.

            2.The air in the city is more polluted than the air in the countryside.

            3.It is very interesting to take a boat trip on the Perfume River.

I.  Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. (5pts)

1. A. brush	B. music	C. truck	D. bus
2. A. hour	B. house	C. help	D. home
3. A. plays	B. says	C. days	D. stays
4. A. watches	B. brushes	C. classes	D. lives
5. A. station	B. intersection	C. question	D. invitation

II. Choose the best answer (A, B, C OR D) to complete each sentence. (10 pt)

1. ………….do you think you can live without TV?

A. How often                   B. What                       C.Which                      D. How long

2. Trung is good………….. playing football, but he can’t …………karate well.

A. with/to                         B. at/play                     C. at/do                       D. in/make

3. Last summer, we……………Turkey and ………….great time there.

A. go/have                       B. went/have               C.went to/had D.were/had

4. …………you ever………….a Philadelphia cheese steak?

A. Will/eat                       B. Have/eaten C. Did/eat                    D. Do/eat

5. In the future, we …………..go on holiday on a beach, but we ………….travel to the moon.

A. won’t/might                B. will/ don’t   C. will be able/ will    D.can/will

6. If we ………….find a beautiful old glass, we …………use it to keep pencils.

A. x/ will              B. will/x                      C. won’t/will   D. x/x

7. When we say “Hello, How are you?”, we are talking to a_______.

A. stranger          B. teacher                C. friend          D. person

8. Mr and Mrs Brown and their father have _________ legs. 

A. four                   B. six                           C. eight                       D.  ten

9. Would you like _________ that for you?

A. me doing            B. that I do                  C. me do                                 D. me to do

10. Who is _________ of the two girls ?

A. tallest                      B. the tallest                C. taller                       D. the taller

ĐÁP ÁN

I.  Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. (5 pts)

1.B

2.A

3.B

4.D

5.C

II.( 2.0 pts) Mỗi câu trả lời đúng (10 pts)

1.D,                 2.C,                 3.C,                 4.B,                 5.A,                 6.A

7.C                 8.B                9.D                 10.B         

III.supply the correct form of the verbs n the brackets (10 P)

1.had – kept  2.are waiting - will miss  3.is – has decorated 

4.isn’t sitting – left  5.taught – will make

IV. Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word in brackets.(10 pts)

1. pianist         2. nearest       3. unhappy        4. rainy           5. interesting

6. healthier      7. most popular   8. juicy        9. farther        10. fluently

V.Read the dialogue then choose the best answer.( 5pt)

1A       2A       3C       4B       5C      

VI. Put one suitable word in each gap to complete the passage (10 pts)

1.most	2.and	3.are	4.snow	5.sports
6.seasons	7.on	8.in	9.go	10.when

VII. Each sentence below contains an error. Find out and correct (10pts)

Mistakes	to take	wasn’t	happy	or	going
Corrections	taking	didn’t	happily	and	to go
Mistakes	where	should to work	so Lan is	since	was
Correction	how	should work	so is Lan	for	were

Question VIII: Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first.(5 Pts)

1. It is good for you to do exercise every morning

2.Nam is shorter than his brrother 

3. He takes care of the sick people

4.He often goes to London by plane

5.That is Mr Trung’s motorbike

IX. Order the sentences to have a complete conversation (10 pts)

1 – D;            2 – C;        3 – B;           4 – F;        5 – I;         6 – H;       7 – E;    8 – J;   

 9 – K;     10 - G

X. Write a paragraph (60 – 80 words) about a kind of sports you like. (5 pts)

- Đúng chủ đề

- Đảm bảo nội dung

- Đúng chính tả và ngữ pháp

- Diễn đạt ý trôi chảy ,có kết nối ý

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Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2021 Trường THCS Tam Quan Bắc. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang Chúng tôi để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

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