| TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYẾN SIÊU | ĐỀ THI HỌC KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 (Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề) |
1. Đề số 1
A. LISTENING (2 points)
You are going to listen to this telephone conversation between JON and JANICE and answer the questions. You should write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the recording TWICE.
Areas dealt with: (1)....................................................................................., North suburbs
Rent: from (2) £................................... to £ 500 a month Depends on: the area
availability (3)............................................ garage
Properties available: West Park Road: rent (4) £.................... a month, including the water bill
Tithe Road: rent £ 380 a month, including (5).................................rental
Viewing arrangements: meet at office on (6).................................................afternoon at 5.00 pm
Need: letter from bank, reference from your (7).................................................
Must: give (8)......................... notice of moving in give deposit
of one-month-pay for contract
B. PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (4 points)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.
1. A. Club B. Lamb C. Doubt D. Bomber (U10)
2. A. Disease B. Spread C. Breed D. Treat (U10)
II. Choose the word whose main stress is different from that of the other words.
1. A. Organism B. Environment C. Temperature D. Satellite (U9)
2. A. Secret B. Ocean C. Migrate D. Express (U9)
III. Choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following sentences.
1. ______ is traditional music from a particular country, region, or community.
A. Blues B. Classical music C. Folk music D. Jazz (U12)
2. “Tien Quan Ca”, the Viet Nam national______ was written by Van Cao.
A. folk song B. anthem C. epic D. pop song (U12)
3. “Silence of the Lambs” is a______ film. It makes the audience scared.
A. disaster B. science fiction C. horror D. action (U13)
4. Charlie Chaplin is considered as the greatest comic actor of the______.
A. musical cinema B. commercial film C. romantic comedy D. silent cinema (U13)
5. The______ was injured so a defender had to go in goal.
A. attacker B. goal-scorer C. opponent D. goalkeeper (U14)
6. The World Cup______ every four years.
A. is held B. have held C. holds D. was held (U14)
7. The city of London was______ by the Romans in the year 43 AD.
A. located B. developed C. founded D. characterized (U15)
8. People come to the parks to______ from city noise and traffic.
A. get away B. get out of C. get over D. get off (U15)
9. ______ is a chemical used for killing-weeds.
A. Pesticide B. Herbicide C. Fertilizer D. Antibiotic (U9)
10. Jim wanted to know______ call and tell him where to meet you.
A. you could B. whether you can C. if you could D. when could you (U9)
IV. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D the one that is SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word.
1. The cattle drank from a river polluted with toxic chemicals.
A. waste B. colorless C. odorless D. poisonous (U11)
2. Wastes are poured into the atmosphere, the air becomes contaminated and unpleasant to breathe.
A. dense B. dirty C. thirsty D. important (U11)
3. READING (2 points)
I. Fill in each blank space with one appropriate from the box. There are more provided words than needed.
| the other attacked fish contests soup |
We know that every year less than 100 people are (1)________ by sharks and about 5 to 10 of these people die. But, let’s look at the (2)________ side of the story – How many sharks do people kill? Well I think you already know this: People kill many more sharks. Every year, people hunt and kill thousands of sharks. One reason people kill sharks is for sport; they hunt them just for fun. Some people started to have (3)________to see who kill the most sharks or he bigger sharks. Another reason that people kill sharks is for food. In some countries, such as the United States and Great Britain, shark meat is a popular food. In other countries, such as China, people use shark fins to make (4)________. Because so many people like to eat shark, fishing boats catch a lot of sharks to sell for food.
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer among A, B, C or D provided.
In the United States and its territories alone, there are more than 40 national parks, varying considerably in landscape and mood. Each park was chosen for its unique features, representative of a particular region of the country. Everglades National Park, for example, at the southern tip of Florida, is a huge subtropical swamp, which provides refuge for such unusual reptiles as the alligator and for thousands of varieties of birds, including the graceful pink flamingo. In sharp contrast to the Everglades are the arid, dusty parks of the West. Mesa Verde National Park in Colorado, for example, preserves the ruins of an Indian civilization which flourished in the twelfth and thirteenth centuries. Today, tourists can wander through the awesome cliff dwellings that the Indians carved out of the steep rock.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The large number of nation parks. B. National parks as a wildlife refuge.
C. The diversity of the national parks. D. The differences between countries.
2. National parks in the US_______.
A. are a lot different from each other. B. change a lot in landscape and mood
C. are made more interesting D. are the same as other parks in the world
3. Everglades National Park is_______.
A. in the south of the United States B. home to alligators and many birds
C. an area of land that is full of water D. all are correct
4. The word which in the passage refers to_______.
A. Mesa B. the ruins C. Indian D. civilization
4. WRITING (2 points)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences without changing its original meaning. (1 point)
1. They will hold the meeting before May Day.
The meeting ______________________________________________________.
2. He spent two hours writing the essay.
It took ___________________________________________________________.
3. We’ve never talked to an interesting person like you before.
Never before _____________________________________________________.
4. The store was opened in 1932 by John.
John ____________________________________________________________.
II. In about 80-100 words, write a letter to a friend to talk about your typical day. (1 point)
-------------Hết-----------
ĐÁP ÁN
A. LISTENING (2 points) (0.25 point per one correct item)
| 1. (the) city centre/ center (itself) | 5. (the) telephone/ phone |
| 2. 250 | 6. Wednesday/ Wed |
| 3. (a) garden | 7. employer |
| 4. 325 | 8. two/ 2 weeks’ |
B. PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (2 points)
I. (0.25 point per one correct item): 1. A 2. B
II. (0.25 point per one correct item): 1. B 2. D
III. (0.25 point per one correct item):
| 1. C | 3. C | 5. D | 7. C | 9. B |
| 2. B | 4. D | 6. A | 8. A | 10. C |
IV. (0.25 point per one correct item): 1. D 2. C
C. READING (2 points)
I. (0.25 point per one correct item):
| 1. attacked | 2. other | 3. contests | 4. soup |
II. (0.25pt/item)
| 1. C | 2. A | 3. D | 4. B |
D. WRITING (2 points)
I. (0.25 point per one correct sentence):
1. The meeting will be held before May Day.
2. It took him two hours to write the essay.
3. Never before have we talked to an interesting person like you.
4. John opened the store in 1932.
II. (1 point)
| Phần | Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá | Điểm tối đa |
| Bố cục (0.4 point) | o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài o Câu kết luận phù hợp | 0.1 point 0.2 points 0.1 point |
| Nội dung (0.4 point) | o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic, Đủ thuyết phục người đọc o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5% | 0.1 points 0.1 points 0.2 point |
| Sử dụng ngôn ngữ (0.2 point) | o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung, văn phong/ thể loại o Sử dụng ngôn từ phong phú, ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả chính xác | 0.1 point 0.1 point |
Cách tính lỗi:
Lỗi chính tả/ngữ pháp/ từ vựng gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi – 0.05 point
(Cùng một lỗi lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi)
2. Đề số 2
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest.
Câu 1: A. lines B. prizes C. caps D. meters
Câu 2: A. abandoned B. established C. borrowed D. threatened
Câu 3: A. crooked B. booked C. looked D. cooked
Câu 4: A. population B. national C. question D. station
Câu 5: A. engineer B. where C. atmosphere D. cheer
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose from the best answer to complete each sentence.
Câu 6: ______, he kept on smoking.
A. In spite he has bad cough B. In spite of his bad cough
C. As his bad cough D. Because of his bad cough
Câu 7: These flowers are fresh. They ______ from the garden.
A. have been picked just B. have been just picked
C. just have been picked D. have just been picked
Câu 8: John: I’m really tired. ______ resting before we go out?
Claire: That’s good idea. I’m tired too.
A. How about B. Shall we C. Why don’t we D. Let’s
Câu 9: She sometimes does not have enough time to take care _______her old parents.
A. on B. to C. of D. for
Câu 10: Nearly 1,000 of the world's bird species are threatened with ________.
A. destruction B. appearance C. protection D. extinction
Câu 11: At the weekend, the beach is often crowded ______ people.
A. with B. over C. in D. for
Câu 12: Ann: “Would you like to have lunch with us?”
Beck: “______.”
A. You are welcome B. Yes, I'd love to C. Not at all D. Thank you
Câu 13: I will never talk to you again ______ you apologize me ______ your being so rude.
A. unless/ for B. whether/ of C. if/ for D. or/ of
Câu 14: Many plants and animals can be used as medicine _____ cancer, AIDS and other sicknesses.
A. by B. against C. with D. for
Câu 15: The teacher had divided the students ______ small groups before they did their task.
A. in B. for C. of D. into
Câu 16: Sperm whale populations are at risk ______ hunting and their accidental entrapment in fishing nets.
A. because B. in spite of C. thanks to D. due to
Câu 17: Some plants and animals are referred to as ______ organisms because they are extremely small.
A. youngest B. tin C. big D. tiny
Câu 18: These plants cannot ______ in your garden. It never gets any sun.
A. survivor B. surviving C. survive D. survived
Câu 19: Sperm whales are ______, which means they eat meat.
A. omnivores B. herbivores C. carnivores D. mammals
Câu 20: ______ air makes people unpleasant to breathe.
A. Pollution. B. Polluting C. Pollute D. Polluted
Câu 21: Lan: I'm leaving for lunch. ______?
Mai: Thanks, but I can't right now. I'm really busy.
A. Do you come B. Would you like to come
C. Could you come D. Do you feel like going
Câu 22: Some animals are on the ______ of becoming extinct.
A. verge B. tip C. edge D. side
Câu 23: If I had had enough money, I ______ a dictionary.
A. would bought B. would buy C. will buy D. would have bought
Câu 24: I ______ to parties very often.
A. don’t invite B. not invited C. not invite D. am not invited
Câu 25: I think you ______ apologize for your bad behaviour.
A. ought B. shall C. should D. have
III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
Câu 26: Contamination is threatening the park and many species of animals living in it.
A. distribution B. pollution C. elimination D. population
Câu 27: The society was set up to preserve endangered species from extinction.
A. found B. established C. distinguished D. prevented
Câu 28: People in this region cultivate mainly rice and vegetables.
A. destroy B. develop C. grow D. support
IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
Câu 29: The floor was covered with tiny pieces of paper.
A. unimportant B. many C. extremely small D. very large
Câu 30: We had an accidental meeting with an old friend at the party last night.
A. expected B. unacceptable C. unpleasant D. unlucky
V. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that needs correction.
Câu 31: We could have given you a lift if we had know you were coming this way.
A. were coming B. could C. had know D. given
Câu 32: We haven’t seen Jim since he has returned the countryside.
A. since B. the C. haven’t seen D. has returned
Câu 33: They also learn about the habits of animals and how one species is dependent upon another for surviving.
A. dependent B. how C. about D. surviving
Câu 34: Were Mr Morgan still head teacher, he would not permit such bad behave.
A. behave B. Were Mr Morgan C. would D. such
Câu 35: I don’t have many time to prepare for the job interview.
A. for B. to prepare C. many time D. don’t haveD
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence that has the closest meaning to the given one.
Câu 36: It was only because his wife helped him that he was able to finish his book.
A. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
B. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book.
C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
D. If only he had been able to finish his book.
Câu 37: I didn’t know that Lam had to get up early, so I didn’t wake him.
A. If I had known that Lam had to get up early, I would have woken him up.
B. If I know that Lam have to get up early, I will wake him up.
C. If I knew that Lam had to get up early, I would wake him up.
D. If I knew that Lam had to get up early, I would have woken him up.
Câu 38: Unless this biodiversity were maintained, marine life would be at stake.
A. If this biodiversity were maintained, marine life would be at stake.
B. If this biodiversity weren’t maintained, marine life would be at stake.
C. If this biodiversity were maintained, marine life wouldn’t be at stake
D. If this biodiversity weren’t maintained, marine life wouldn’t be at stake.
Câu 39: They have robbed the bank near my house.
A. The bank near my house has been robbed.
B. The bank near my house have been robbed.
C. The bank near my house has not been robbed.
D. Near my house has been robbed the bank.
Câu 40: “Would you like to come to my birthday party, Mary?” said Mike.
A. Mike didn’t know that Mary had come to his birthday party.
B. Mike asked Mary if she didn’t like to come to his birthday party.
C. Mike invited Mary to come to his birthday party.
D. Mike was told to come to Mary’s birthday party.
VII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to best completes the passage.
The Meadow Park Zoo, which (41) ______ three months ago, is already attracting large numbers of visitors. The new zoo is quite small, compared with other similar (42) _____. You won’t find any large and dangerous animals such as lions or tigers in cages. Instead, there is a children’s zoo, where children can handle little animals like rabbits and (43) ______. They can also have rides on a camel or an elephant. The zoo had a working farm, too, with cows, sheep, ducks and chickens.
Lots of children from cities don’t understand what happens (44) ______ a farm. It’s important (45) ______ them to see for themselves where their milk and eggs come from.
Câu 41: A. opened B. opens C. opening D. open
Câu 42: A. attractions B. parties C. schools D. events
Câu 43: A. hippos B. mice C. crocodiles D. bears
Câu 44: A. across B. in C. up D. for
Câu 45: A. for B. at C. of D. up
VIII. Read the passage and complete the sentences. Mark the letter A, B, C r D on your answer sheet.
Once there were lots of pandas in the mountains of Western China. Today they are becoming extinct. The reason is they cannot find enough food. Pandas eat bamboo leaves. They do not like another food. The bamboo grows very slowly. It can take ten years for a bamboo to grow from a seed to a big plant. Some types of bamboo have seeds only once every 60 years. Pandas must wait many years for their food to grow. While the bamboo is growing, pandas do not have enough leaves to eat. Farmers are using more and more of the land on the mountain side to grow food for man. The farmers cut down the bamboo. Bamboo leaves become less plentiful. Pandas cannot find enough food to eat. They starve and die. China and World Wildlife Fund (WWF) are trying to save the pandas. In 1979 they began to set up special parks where pandas can live. One such park is the Wolong Reserve in Sichuan. The Wolong Reserve has the highest number of pandas in the world. Scientists come here to study the pandas’ eating and mating habits. By learning more about the pandas’ habits, scientists can save them from extinction.
--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---
ĐÁP ÁN
1C 2B 3A 4C 5B 6B 7D 8A 9C 10D 11A 12B 13A 114B 15D 16D 17D 18C 19C 20D
21B 22A 23D 24D 25C 26B 27B 28C 29D 30A 31C 32D 33D 34A 35C
36C 37A 38B 39A 40C 41A 42A 43B 44B 45A 46D 47C 48A 49A 50B
3. Đề số 3
II. READING: (3.0 points)
...
Part 2: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each blank (1.0 point).
Cuc Phuong, the first national park in Viet Nam, was oficially opened 1960. It (15) ……….. 160 kilometers south west of Ha Noi spanning. Ninh Binh, Hoa Binh and Thanh Hoa provinces Cuc Phuong National Park contains over 200 square kilometers of rainforest. It attracts (16) ………… tourists and scientists. In 2002, nearly 100,000 visitors made their way to Cuc Phuong. Tourists come there to study butterflies, visit caves, hike mountains and look at the (17) ….…. tree. Many come to see the work being done to protect endangered species. According, to scientists, there are about 2,000 different species (18) ……… and 450 species of fauna in the park.
15. A. is located B. is locating C. locates D. located
16. A. every B. both C. neither D. either
17. A. 1,000 year old B. 1,000 years C. 1,000-year-old D. 1,000-years-old
18. A. vegetation B. flowers C. trees D. flora
Part 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions(1.0 point)
THE WORLD CUP
World Cup is the most important competition in international football, and the world's most representative team sport event. Organized by Federation International de Football Association (FIFA), the sport’s governing body; the World Cup is contested by men's national football teams which are FIFA members. The World Cup is held every four years (except in times of war), but the elimination rounds of the competition (which narrows the field of as many as 197 teams down to the final 32 teams) take place over a three-year period, using regional elimination tournaments.
The “the final tournament” phrase (often called the "Finalists") involves 32 national teams competing over a four-week period in a previously nominated host nation. Only seven nations have won the World Cup Finals. The most recent football World Cup was held in Germany between June 9 and July 10, 2006. The World Cup Finals is the most widely viewed and followed sporting event in the world. The final match of the 2006 World Cup was watched by more than one billion people.
19. Where was the 2006 World cup held?
A. United States B. Germany C. French D. Brazil
20. How many national teams take part in the final tournament?
A. 52 B. 81 C. 197 D. 32
21. What does the “FIFA” mean?
A. Federation International Football Association.
B. Federation International de Football Associations.
C. Federation International de Football Association.
D. Federation Internation de Football Association.
22. Which countries have became the champion in the World Cup Finals?
A.West Germany, Argentina, England B. Brazil and Italy
C. Uraguay and France D. All are correct
IV. WRITING (2,5p)
Part 1: . Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one
1. No student in the class is smaller than Jonathan.
Jonathan .......................................................................................................................
2. He didn’t learn hard so he couldn’t pass the exam.
If I had ...........................................................................................................................
Part 2: . Write an announcement, using the cues given below
ANSWER KEY
II- READING ( 3.0 points)
* Part 1: (0.25 point for each correct answer)
| 11A | 12C | 13B | 14B |
* Part 2: (0.25 point for each correct answer)
| 15A | 16B | 17C | 18D |
* Part 3: (0.25 point for each correct answer)
| 19B | 20D | 21C | 22D |
III. WRITING:
* Part 1: (0.5 point for each correct answer)
1. Jonathan is the smallest (student) in the class. .
2. If he had learned hard, he could have passed the exam.
* Part 2: 1,5 điểm
- Nội dung : 0,75 điểm
- Sử dụng từ ngữ, câu chính xác: 0,5 điểm
- Đúng cấu trúc đoạn văn : 0,25 điểm
4. Đề số 4
I. Give the transcription of the given italicized, underlined parts of words. (0.1pt/item)
1. responsible__
2. exchange__
3. protected
4. acupuncture__
5. habit__
II. Give the position of the main stressed syllable of the following words. (0.1pt/item)
1. different__
2. understand__
3. remember__
4. disease__
5. arrive__
III. Supply the right form of the verbs in the parentheses. (0.2pt/item)
Dear Linda,
I’m sorry that I haven’t written to you for so long, but I (1. be) ________very busy lately. All last month I (2. have) __________ exams, and I haven’t done anything else but study for ages. Anyway, I (3. stop) ________ studying now, and I (4. wait) ________ for my exams results.
As you can see from the letter, I (5. change) ___________ my address and live in Croydon now. I (6. decide) _________ that I wanted a change from central London because it (7. become) _______ so expensive. A friend of mine told me about this flat, and I (8. move)________here about two months ago. When you come to London this summer, please visit me. I (9. stay) _______ here until the middle of August. Then I (10. go) _________ on holiday to Scotland.
Love,
Peter
IV. Underline one error in each of the following sentences and correct it in the space given. (0.2pt/item)
1. The harder you learn, the most knowledge you get.
2. My family spent an interested holiday in Nha Trang last summer.
3. Lan didn’t go to the cinema with her friends last Saturday evening because her sickness.
4. They played so good game of tennis last night that they surprised their audience.
5. Mary's mother gave her a new hat at her birthday.
V. Supply the right form of each capitalized word to complete each of the following sentences. (0.2pt/item)
1. The……of the new guest caused trouble to my aunt. ARRIVE
2. Every week, there are two ………..from Ha Noi to Nha Trang. FLY
3. It is very …….to live in a damp room. HEALTH
4. I had my trousers ……….because they were too short. LONG
5. The children listened ………to the rules of the game explained by the teacher. ATTENTION
VI. Fill in each of the blanks with one suitable word. (0.2pt/item)
I was (1) ………….. up by my uncle and aunt and grew up on a small farm in the west of England. I think it was better (2) …….... living in a city, because every day I ran about (3)......... the open air. Until I (4)............ to school, all I did was play on the farm all day. (5) ......... my aunt and uncle worked with the animals, and (6)............... they worked very hard, they always explained interesting things to me. They didn’t have much money, but they got along well (7)........ everyone, and we didn’t have any of the problems of living in the city. I always felt happy on the farm. There was no noise (8) ……….. pollution, and (9)…………was really peaceful. That’s probably (10) ………… I became a farmer when I was older.
VII. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that your sentences remain the original meaning of the given ones. (0.3pt/ 1item)
1. He couldn’t afford to buy that car.
That car was …………………………………………………………………………………….…
2. We got lost because we didn’t have a map.
If we….………………………………………………………….…………………….……………
3. Mr Long spent six hours driving from London to Edinburgh.
It took…………… …………………………………………………………………..…………….
4. John finally managed to get a good job.
John finally succeeded..………………………………………………………………….…………
5. Although he had a good salary, he was unhappy in his job.
In spite of …………………………………..………………………………………………………
VIII. In about 80- 120 words, write a paragraph about how people in your family share housework. (1.5pts)
Some useful words and structures:
1. to be responsible for.... = take responsibility for...: chịu trách nhiệm....
2. take up: nhận
3. both......and....: cả.....và........
4. contribute: đóng góp
5. take turns: thay phiên
…………………………………..………………………………………………………………………
__________THE END_________
ĐÁP ÁN
I. Give the transcription of the given italicized, underlined parts of words. (0.1pt/item)
| 6. responsible_/I/_ | 7. exchange_/ t∫/_ | 8. protected /id/ | 9. acupuncture/L/ | 10. habit/ æ/ |
II. Give the position of the main stressed syllable of the following words. (0.1pt/item)
| 6. different_1_ | 7. understand_3_ | 8. remember_2_ | 9. disease_2_ | 10. arrive_2 |
III. Supply the right form of the verbs in the parentheses. (0.2pt/item)
| 1. have been | 2. had | 3. have stopped | 4. am waiting | 5. have changed |
| 6. decided | 7. has become/ is becoming | 8. moved | 9. will be staying / am staying / am going to stay | 10. will be going / am going |
IV. Underline one error in each of the following sentences and correct it in the space given. (0.2pt/item)
1. The harder you learn, the most knowledge you get.
2. My family spent an interested holiday in Nha Trang last summer.
3. Lan didn’t go to the cinema with her friends last Saturday evening because her sickness.
4. They played so good game of tennis last night that they surprised their audience.
5. Mary's mother gave her a new hat at her birthday.
Your answers:
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V. Supply the right form of each capitalized word to complete each of the following sentences. (0.2pt/item)
|
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VI. Fill in each of the blanks with one suitable word. (0.2pt/item)
| 1. brought | 2. than | 3. in | 4. went | 5. Both |
| 6. although | 7. with | 8. or | 9. it | 10. why |
VII. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that your sentences remain the original meaning of the given ones. (0.3pt/ 1item)
1. That car was too expensive for him to buy./That car was so expensive that he couldn’t afford to buy it.
2. If we had had a map, we wouldn’t have got lost.
3. It took him / Mr Long six hours to drive from London to Edinburgh.
4. John finally succeeded in getting a good job.
5. It can’t be denied that she has a beautiful voice.
6. In spite of his good salary, he was unhappy in his job.
In spite of the fact that he had a good salary, he was unhappy in his job.
VIII. In about 80- 120 words, write a paragraph about how people in your family share housework. (1.5pts)
5. Đề số 5
Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest
1. A. sight B. listen C. start D. music
2. A. ideas B. thoughts C. runs D. dreams
3. A. Chinese B. chamber C. machine D. merchant
Choose a word in each line that has different stress pattern
4. A. merchant B. compete C. postpone D. destroy
5. A. dolphin B. gentle C. flora D. compose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
6. You look tired.(A) I am getting (B) something for (C) you to drink (D)
7. It was not (A) until the teacher came that (B) the students didn't stop (C) talking (D)
8. Man and most (A) animals need a constantly (B) supply of (C) water to live (D)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
9. My sister is terrified of spiders.
A. fond
B. frightened
C. jealous
D. proud
10. Some companies continue to flourish despite the bad economic situation.
A. establish
B. develop
C. construct
D. witness
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
11. Some marine creatures are very small, white others are oversized
A. too big
B. very dangerous
C. very fast
D. very tiny
12. If you study hard, you will pass the exam.
A. studious
B. fast
C. lazy
D. easily
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks
World Cup is the most important (13) _______ international football, and the world’s most representative team sport event. Organized (14)________ Federation International de Football Association (FIFA), the sport’s governing body, the World Cup is contested by men’s national football teams which are FIFA members. The World Cup (15)_______ every four years (except in the times of war), but the elimination rounds of the competition (16) …. .…………… over a three-year period, using regional elimination tournament. The most recent football World Cup was held in Germany between June 9 and July 10, 2006. The World Cup Finals is the most widely viewed and followed sporting (17)________ in the world.
13. A. competition B. compete C. competitor D. competing
14. A. on B. by C. in D. from
15. A. hold B. held C. is held D. is holding
16. A. take over B. take place C. take off D. take after
17. A. event B. competition C. team D. tournament
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response complete each of the following exchanges
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ĐÁP ÁN
1D 2B 3C 4A 5D 6B 7C 8B 9B 10B 11D 12C 13A 14B 15
16B 17A 18D 19C 20D 21B 22C 23A 24D 25C
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
No other sporting event captures the world's imagination like the FIFA World Cup. Ever since the first tentative competition in Uruguay in 1930, FIFA's flagship has constantly grown in popularity and prestige.
A group of visionary French football administrators, led in the 1920s by the innovative Jules Rimet, are credited with the original idea of bringing the world's strongest national football teams together to compete for the title of World Champions. The original gold trophy bore Jules Rimet's name and was contested three times in the 1930s, before the Second World War put a 12-year stop to the competition:
When it resumed, the FIFA World Cup rapidly advanced to its undisputed status as the greatest single sporting event of the modern world. Held since 1958 alternately in Europe and the Americas, the World Cup broke new ground with the Executive Committee's decision in May 1996 to select Korea and Japan as co-hosts for the 2002 edition.
Today, the FIFA World Cup holds the entire global public under its spell. An accumulated audience of over 37 billion people watched the France 98 tournament, including approximately 1.3 billion for the final alone, while over 2.7 million people flocked to watch the 64 matches in the French stadia.
After all these years and so many changes, however, the main focus of the FIFA World Cup remains the same the glistening golden trophy, which is the embodiment of every footballer's ambition.
26. The first World Cup tournament was held in ...........
A. 1920 B. 1930 C. 1958 D. 1996
27. Who are believed to be responsible for the .............. idea of competing for the title of World Champions?
A. Jules Rimet. B. French football administrators.
C. The FIFA. D. The Executive Committee.
28. The FIFA World Cup .............
A. bore Jules Rimet's name. C. was held three times in the 1930.
B. resumed in 1958. D. was halted by the outbreak of the war.
29. The 2002 World Cup ............
A. was the first World Cup held in Asia. B. was decided in May 1996.
C. was held in Japan D. broke a new ground.
30. Which of the following is Not True?
A. The golden trophy represents footballer's ambition.
B. The FIFA World Cup is the greatest sporting event in the world.
C. The 2002 World Cup was held jointly by Korea and Japan.
D. The focus of the FIFA World Cup has changed little since the first competition was held in 1930.
Choose the best answer to complete of the following sentences.
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ĐÁP ÁN
26B 27B 28D 29A 30D 31B 32D 33B 34B 35A
36D 37B 38C 39A 40B 41C 42B 43D 44A 45D
46D 47B 48D 49A 50C 51C
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